MCQ for mcq-test-4-7th-june-2023

by Vajiram & Ravi

29-08-2023

06:36 AM

1.

For which one of the following reasons, the rights listed under Part III of the Constitution are called as ‘Fundamental Rights’?

  • A

    These rights are guaranteed and protected by the Constitution.

  • B

    These rights are listed in the United Nation’s Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

  • C

    These rights are part of the basic structure of the Constitution which cannot be altered.

  • D

    All these rights are available to both citizens and non-citizens alike.

2.

Which one of the following best defines the term ‘law’?

  • A

    Political norms established by the society to regulate human behaviour

  • B

    Rules made by the designated political authority having legitimacy to do so

  • C

    Rules that govern human behaviour and are not coercive in nature

  • D

    Social norms established by the society to ensure justice to the deprived

3.

In the context of Indian polity, which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of ‘Freedom’?

  • A

    Complete absence of restraint

  • B

    Opportunity to do whatever one likes

  • C

    Protection against the tyranny of State

  • D

    Liberty with reasonable restrain

4.

In India, women got universal suffrage rights from the

  • A

    Act of 1858 passed by the British Parliament

  • B

    Enactment of Government of India Act 1935

  • C

    61st Constitutional Amendment, 1989

  • D

    None of the above

5.

Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Right to Equality’ under the Indian Constitution:

1. Principle of equality before the law does not involve the idea of absolute equality for all.

2. Principle of equal protection of the laws empowers the State to classify people for legitimate purposes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

6.

Consider the following statements regarding the right to counsel in custody:

1. Article 22 states that a person cannot be denied the right to consult and to be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice.

2. Under this provision, an arrestee is entitled to meet his lawyer throughout the interrogation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

7.

Consider the following statements:

1. Right of an institution run by a minority community to get government aid is a fundamental right under Article 30.

2. Government can impose any conditions necessary for the proper utilization of aid to all institutions, including minority educational institutions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

8.

Consider the following:

1. Seventh Schedule

2. Involvement of State Legislature in certain constitutional amendments

3. Financial Emergency

4. All India Services

Which of the above can be considered as federal features of the Indian Constitution?

  • A

    1, 2 and 4 only

  • B

    1 and 2 only

  • C

    3 and 4 only

  • D

    1, 2, 3 and 4

9.

With reference to martial law, consider the following statements:

1. It affects not only the Fundamental Rights but also the Centre-State relations. 

2. It suspends the government and ordinary law courts in a specific area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

10.

With reference to the residuary powers, consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate on residuary subjects.

2. The feature of residuary power has been borrowed from the British Constitution.

3. Government of India Act of 1935 vested residuary powers in the hands of the Governor-General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    1 and 2 only

  • C

    1 and 3 only

  • D

    3 only

11.

With reference to the right to freedom of religion in India, consider the following statements:

1. Right to carry kirpans by the Sikhs is a fundamental right granted by the Constitution.

2. The Supreme Court cannot decide on the essential practices of a religion.

3. It is subject to reasonable restrictions only on the grounds of public order and morality.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    1 and 2 only

  • C

    2 and 3 only

  • D

    1, 2 and 3

12.

With reference to the ‘writs’ under the constitution, consider the following statements:

1. The writ jurisdiction of a high court is wider than that of the supreme court of India.

2. The writ of Prohibition is not available against legislative bodies but can be issued against the administrative authorities.

3. The writ of Certiorari can be issued only by the supreme court to prevent an excess of jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 and 3 only

  • C

    2 only

  • D

    1, 2 and 3

13.

Consider the following statements:

1. Unlike India, Canada is a constitutional monarchy having the Queen of the United Kingdom as the constitutional head.

2. In India, residuary legislative powers are vested with the Union Government, whereas in Canada, they are vested with the states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

14.

‘Right to Access Internet’ is protected under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? 

1. Article 14

2. Article 19

3. Article 21

4. Article 21A

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • A

    1 and 2 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    3 only

  • D

    2, 3 and 4 only

15.

If Parliament enacts a law that threatens the fundamental rights of an individual, then which of the following Articles can be used by the Supreme Court to declare it void?

  • A

    Article 13

  • B

    Article 21

  • C

    Article 226

  • D

    Article 368

16.

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India enforce ‘Fraternity’?

1. Article 14

2. Article 15

3. Article 17

4. Article 18

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • A

    1 and 4 only

  • B

    2 and 3 only

  • C

    1, 2 and 3 only

  • D

    1, 2, 3 and 4

17.

Consider the following statements with reference to countervailing duty:

1. It is imposed on imported goods to compensate for government subsidies provided by the exporting country.

2. The World Trade Organization (WTO) do not permit the imposition of countervailing duty by its member countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

18.

Which of the following are considered as non-tariff barriers to trade?

1. General or product-specific quotas

2. Quality conditions imposed by the importing country

3. Discriminatory rules of origin

4. Export subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A

    1 and 2 only

  • B

    1, 2 and 3 only

  • C

    1, 3 and 4 only

  • D

    1, 2, 3 and 4

19.

Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Anti-dumping duties’:

1. It is applicable to both import and export-related goods and services.

2. Imposing anti-dumping duties will lead to widening of trade deficit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

20.

The term “Certificates of Origin” is related to which of the following?

  • A

    It is used in granting of visas to individuals.

  • B

    It is used in protection of intellectual property rights across the country.

  • C

    It is used in international trade.

  • D

    None of the above

21.

Agristack, recently seen in the news is

  • A

    a collection of technology-based interventions in agriculture

  • B

    a new bill to reform the farm warehouse sectors

  • C

    an initiative by the Food Corporation of India to reduce its operating cost

  • D

    a post-harvest processing of crops residue to prevent stubble burning

22.

With reference to ‘oil seeds crops’ in India, consider the following statements:
1. More than fifty percent of the total oilseeds area is confined to irrigation farming.

2. Soybean accounts for maximum oil seed production.

3. Castor seed can be cultivated as both as rabi and kharif crop.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • A

    1 and 2 only

  • B

    2 and 3 only

  • C

    1 and 3 only

  • D

    1, 2 and 3

23.

Consider the following statements with reference to Performance Budgeting:

1. Funding is based on program efficiency and necessity rather than budget history.

2. It was first introduced in 2015 in the Central Ministries in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

24.

Which of the following receipts are classified under the category of non-debt capital receipts of the Union Government?

1. Proceedings from strategic disinvestment

2. Issuance of Special Securities to Public Sector Banks

3. Issue of bonus shares to investors of government companies

4. Grants-in-aid from international financing institutions

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • A

    1 and 3 only

  • B

    2 and 4 only

  • C

    1, 3 and 4 only

  • D

    1, 2, 3 and 4

25.

Which of the following best explains the term ‘deferred tax’?

  • A

    It is a form of tax evasion, which leads to significant revenue loss to the Government.

  • B

    It is the postponement of paying tax by the companies or individuals to a future date.

  • C

    It is the income or transaction which is free from taxation at a later date at the Union, state, or local level.

  • D

    It is the tax paid to the government by the payer of the income rather than by the recipient.