MCQ for test-4-16th-august-2023

by Vajiram & Ravi

29-08-2023

06:37 AM

1.

The Constitution of India is called a ‘living document’ for which one of the following reasons?

  • A

    It can accommodate the changing needs of society.

  • B

    Its basic structure cannot be altered or amended even by legislation.

  • C

    It reflects the dreams and aspirations of the founding fathers.

  • D

    It adheres to the principle of natural justice duly recognised in Part III and IV.

2.

Consider the following statements:

1. Both India and the USA have an integrated judicial system to help establish a strong federation.

2. The age of retirement of the Judges in both the American and Indian Supreme Court is the same.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

3.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Independence Act of 1947:

1. The Act was based on the June 3 Plan for the independence and partition of India.

2. It altered the status of India from a Dependency of the British Crown to that of an Independent Republic.

3. It proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over the Indian princely states and treaty relations with tribal areas from August 15, 1947.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • A

    1 and 2 only

  • B

    2 and 3 only

  • C

    1 and 3 only

  • D

    1, 2 and 3

4.

Consider the following statements:

1. M. N. Roy was the first to demand a Constituent Assembly for India in 1934.

2. Indian National Congress, for the first time, made a formal demand for a Constituent Assembly at its Tripuri Session in 1939.

3. The demand for Constituent Assembly was finally accepted by the British under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

  • A

    1 and 2 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    2 and 3 only

  • D

    1 and 3 only

5.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constituent Assembly of India:

1. Around 20% of the assembly members were women.

2. The Drafting Committee of the assembly took almost three years to prepare its first draft of the new Constitution.

3. The Assembly was dissolved on January 24, 1950, after its final session.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    1 and 2 only

  • C

    3 only

  • D

    None of the above

6.

Consider the following with reference to the composition of the Constituent Assembly:

  1. The system of communal representation was abandoned while electing the members of the provincial legislative assembly.
  2. The Constituent Assembly was a partly elected and partly nominated body.
  3. Gandhiji was elected unopposed into the Constituent Assembly, with the support of the Muslim League.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    2 only

  • B

    1 and 2 only

  • C

    2 and 3 only

  • D

    1, 2 and 3

7.

With reference to the concept of ‘Constitutionalism,’ consider the following statements:

1. Its essence is reflected in the principle of limited government.

2. Constitutionalism is inherent in all countries having constitutions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

8.

Consider the following:

1. Seventh Schedule

2. Involvement of State Legislature in certain constitutional amendments

3. Financial Emergency

4. All India Services

Which of the above can be considered as federal features of the Indian Constitution?

  • A

    1, 2 and 4 only

  • B

    1 and 2 only

  • C

    3 and 4 only

  • D

    1, 2, 3 and 4

9.

With reference to the residuary powers, consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate on residuary subjects.

2. The feature of residuary power has been borrowed from the British Constitution.

3. Government of India Act of 1935 vested residuary powers in the hands of the Governor-General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    1 and 2 only

  • C

    1 and 3 only

  • D

    3 only

10.

Consider the following statements:

1. Unlike India, Canada is a constitutional monarchy having the Queen of the United Kingdom as the constitutional head.

2. In India, residuary legislative powers are vested with the Union Government, whereas in Canada, they are vested with the states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

11.

Consider the following statements with reference to aspects of Liberty:

1. Negative liberty seeks to define and defend a sacred area in which no external authority can interfere.

2. Positive liberty recognizes that one can be free only outside society, not inside and thus enables individual development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

12.

Consider the following statements with reference to countervailing duty:

1. It is imposed on imported goods to compensate for government subsidies provided by the exporting country.

2. The World Trade Organization (WTO) do not permit the imposition of countervailing duty by its member countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

13.

Which of the following are considered as non-tariff barriers to trade?

1. General or product-specific quotas

2. Quality conditions imposed by the importing country

3. Discriminatory rules of origin

4. Export subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A

    1 and 2 only

  • B

    1, 2 and 3 only

  • C

    1, 3 and 4 only

  • D

    1, 2, 3 and 4

14.

Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Anti-dumping duties’:

1. It is applicable to both import and export-related goods and services.

2. Imposing anti-dumping duties will lead to widening of trade deficit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

15.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Remission of Duties or Taxes on Export Products (RoDTEP) scheme:

1. It replaced the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS).

2. It is a WTO compliant scheme applicable to the export of all goods and services.

3. Duties and taxes levied at the Central, State and local levels will be refunded to exporters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 and 3 only

  • C

    1 and 3 only

  • D

    1, 2 and 3

16.

The term “Certificates of Origin” is related to which of the following?

  • A

    It is used in granting of visas to individuals.

  • B

    It is used in protection of intellectual property rights across the country.

  • C

    It is used in international trade.

  • D

    None of the above

17.

Consider the following statements with reference to public accounts of India:

1. Public Account funds do not belong to the government and have to be finally paid back to the persons and authorities that deposited them.

2. Expenditures from the Public Accounts are not required to be approved by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

18.

Consider the following statements with reference to Performance Budgeting:

1. Funding is based on program efficiency and necessity rather than budget history.

2. It was first introduced in 2015 in the Central Ministries in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

19.

Which of the following receipts are classified under the category of non-debt capital receipts of the Union Government?

1. Proceedings from strategic disinvestment

2. Issuance of Special Securities to Public Sector Banks

3. Issue of bonus shares to investors of government companies

4. Grants-in-aid from international financing institutions

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • A

    1 and 3 only

  • B

    2 and 4 only

  • C

    1, 3 and 4 only

  • D

    1, 2, 3 and 4

20.

Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Effective Capital Expenditure’?

  • A

    It is the Capital Expenditure taken together with provision made for creation of capital assets through Grants-In-Aid to States.

  • B

    It is the Capital Expenditure taken together with provision made for acquiring fixed assets like land and investment by the Government.

  • C

    It is the expenditure by the Government which does not impact its assets or liabilities.

  • D

    It consists of the money earned by the government through tax and non-tax sources.

21.

Consider the following statements with reference to Government’s dividend receipts from the Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE):

1. Dividends and profits received from the CPSE form a part of capital receipts of the Government.

2. There is no minimum ceiling of dividends that a CPSE is mandated to pay the Government.

3. Indian Railways is not required to pay dividends to the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 and 2 only

  • B

    2 and 3 only

  • C

    3 only

  • D

    1, 2 and 3

22.

Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Fiscal Drag’?

  • A

    A situation wherein inflation or income growth moves taxpayers into higher tax brackets.

  • B

    It is a fiscal policy designed to offset fluctuations in a nation's economy without authorization by the government.

  • C

    It is a combination of expiring tax cuts and reduction in government spending to check the fiscal stimulus.

  • D

    The spending and taxation policies used by the government to influence the economy.

23.

Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of ‘off-budget borrowing’ by the Government of India?

  • A

    It is considered while calculating the gross fiscal deficit.

  • B

    Parliament exercises direct control over these borrowings.

  • C

    It includes the deferred payments of bills by the Centre.

  • D

    It greatly affects the credit ratings of a sovereign nation.

24.

Agristack, recently seen in the news is

  • A

    a collection of technology-based interventions in agriculture

  • B

    a new bill to reform the farm warehouse sectors

  • C

    an initiative by the Food Corporation of India to reduce its operating cost

  • D

    a post-harvest processing of crops residue to prevent stubble burning

25.

Consider the following statements with reference to Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF):

1. It promotes intensive irrigation and deep ploughing.

2. The large-scale adoption of ZBNF may lead to a reduction in agricultural productivity.

3. It excludes insect and pest management.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 and 3 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    2 and 3 only

  • D

    1, 2 and 3