UPSC CSE Prelims 2022 Questions asked from Vajiram Test Series

by Vajiram & Ravi

Sl. No.

UPSC Question

Vajiram & Ravi Question

Mock Test No.

With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:

1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.

2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.

3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements with reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs):

1. It is a digital asset that links ownership to unique physical or digital items.

2. NFTs and cryptocurrencies rely on the same underlying blockchain technology.

3. It can be traded or exchanged for one another NFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Test-3, Q.81

Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.

2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.

3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by a special majority and there is no provision for Joint Sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements with reference to a Constitutional Amendment Bill:

1. Such a bill can be introduced by a private member in either House of the Parliament but requires prior permission of the President.

2. There is no provision for holding a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament if there is a deadlock over the passage of such a bill.

3. The President cannot withhold his assent to such bill; he can only return the bill for reconsideration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Test-2, Q.24

Consider the following countries:

1. Azerbaijan

2. Kyrgyzstan

3. Tajikistan

4. Turkmenistan

5. Uzbekistan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Consider the following countries:

1. Tajikistan

2.Turkmenistan

3.Uzbekistan

4.Kyrgyzstan

5.China

Which of the above-mentioned countries border Afghanistan?

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2, 4 and 5

C. 1, 2, 3 and 5

D. 2, 3, 4 and 5

Test-3, Q.92

The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas

(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora

(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

Consider the following statements with reference to the Miyawaki technique of forests:

1. It involves planting trees as close as possible in the same area.

2. It can significantly reduce microbial activity on the surface.

3. It is based on the commensalism type of ecological relationship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Test-10, Q.14

With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB), which of the following statements are correct?

1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.

2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.

3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements with reference to the Bank Board Bureau:

1. It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Associa tion (IBA).

2. It was established based on the recommendations of the P.J Nayak Committee.

3. It makes recommendations for the appointment of full-time directors of Public Sector Banks.

4. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is its ex-officio Chairman. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 4 and 3 only

Test-13, Q.88

With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.

2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.

3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea in measure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements with reference to the various marine zones:

1. Territorial Seas are under exclusive jurisdiction of the coastal states with no right of passage of any other States.

2. The Contiguous Zone only gives a State jurisdiction over the ocean's surface and floor.

3. Coastal states have the right to explore both living and non-living resources in the Exclusive Economic Zone.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Test-14, Q.21

Consider the following:

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

2. Missile Technology Control Regime

3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements with reference to the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR): 1. It imposes legal obligations on members to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology.

2. India can only export missiles with a maximum range of 300 kilometres as it is not a member of the MTCR. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

India is a member of which of the following organizations?

1. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

2. International Monetary Fund

3. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development

4. Asian Infrastructure and Investment Bank

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Test-10, Q.12

Test-13, Q.98

Consider the following statements:

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.

2.The Constitution of India empowers the supreme court and High court to punish for contempt of themselves.

3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.

4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 3 only

Consider the following statements with reference to Contempt of Court:

1. The term ‘contempt of court has not been defined by the Constitution.

2. Attorney General’s consent is mandatory for initiating any contempt of co urt case.

3. The Supreme Court’s power to punish for contempt is a constitutional power.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Test-4, Q.20

With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.

2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.

3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements with reference to the European powers in India:

1. The Dutch East India Company established its first factory in Surat in 1616.

2. The Danish East India Company founded its first factory at Tranquebar in 1620.

3. Chandranagore near Calcutta was an important Danish settlement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements with reference to the Portuguese rule in India:

1. Francisco de Almeida is credited with abolishing Sati under his rule.

2. Alfonso de Albuquerque developed the cartaz system.

3. Nuno da Cunha established Hooghly as Portuguese headquarters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

Explanation:

· Albuquerque, who succeeded Almeida as the Portuguese governor in India, was the real

founder of the Portuguese power in the East. The Portuguese, under Albuquerque,

bolstered their stranglehold by introducing a permit system for other ships and exercising

control over the major ship-building centres in the region. The non-availability of timber in

the Gulf and Red Sea regions for ship-building also helped the Portuguese in their objectives. Albuquerque acquired Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510 with ease; the principal port of the Sultan of Bijapur became “t he first bit of Indian territory to be under the Europeans since the time of Alexander the Great”. An interesting feature of his rule was th abolition of sati.

Test-14, Q.26

Test-5, Q.18

10.

Consider the following statements:

1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.

2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).

3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

If the US Central Bank raises the interest rate, which of the following is the likely impact on the Indian economy?

a) Flow of funds from foreign investors might increase in India for safe and higher returns.

b) The Indian companies will have reduced cost on external borrowings.

c) Raising funds from the bond market will be cheaper for the Indian government.

d) Rupee will depreciate against the dollar, which may lead to inflation In India.

Test-15,

Q.57

11.

In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

(a) Department of Consumer Affairs

(b) Expenditure Management Commission

(d) Reserve Bank of India

Which of the following step is not likely to be taken up by the Reserve Bank of India to bring down inflation?

1. Cut Statutory Liquidity Ratio

2. Increase Repo Rate

3. Decrease Repo Rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only an>

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Test 1, Q.42

12.

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.

2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.

3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:

1. Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is the weighted average of a country's currency in relation to a basket of other major currencies.

2. An increase in a nation's REER is an indication that its exports are becoming more expensive and its imports are becoming cheaper.

3. Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) is the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Test-12, Q.52

13.

In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, entrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

(a) Central Statistics Office (b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

(d) National Technical Manpower Information System

Consider the following statements with reference to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) and Quarterly Employment Survey (QES):

1. The Central Statistics Office publishes PLFS whereas the Labour bureau releases QES.

2. The PLFS collects labour force data from the households whereas the QES collects employment data from the non-farm establishments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test-6, Q.73

14.

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.

2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to the Bar Council of India, consider the following statements:

1. It is a statutory body established by Parliament under the Advocates Act, 1961.

2. It sets standards for legal education in India.

3. The Attorney General of India is an ex-officio chairman of the Council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Test-12, Q18

15.

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

With reference to the Indian Polity, in which of the following situations does the Rajya Sabha enjoy special powers over the Lok Sabha?

1. Creation of a new All India Service

2. Initiating the process for the removal of the Vice President of India

3. Passing a resolution disapproving the proclamation of National Emergency

4. Authorizing the Parliament to make a law on a subject in the State List.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Test-12, Q.61

16.

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements with reference to Anti-defection provisions in India:

1. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he/she defies the party whip and can lose his/her membership of the House.

2. The Constitution provides for a 6 month time period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test-15, Q.53

17.

Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following statements:

1. The constitution provides for his consent before initiating contempt of court proceedings against an individual.

2. He is entitled to all the privileges and immunities enjoyed by a member of Parliament.

3 He is not a government servant and thus not barred from private legal practice.

4. He should not accept an appointment as a director in any company without the consent of the Government of India.

5. He is the only officer who is allowed by the constitution to participate in the meetings of the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 4 and 5 only

c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Test-8, Q.5

18.

Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:

1. Probiotics are made both of bacteria and yeast.

2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.

3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Consider the following statements with reference to Gut Microbes in the humans:

1. Prebiotics are gut beneficial bacteria and probiotics are food for these bacteria.

2. Gut bacteria exhibit the relation of commensalism with humans.

3. Prebiotics boosts immunity and reduces skin and respiratory allergies.

4. Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium are examples of Probiotics.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Test-17, Q.68

19.

In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects?

1. Administration of Justice

2. Local Self-Government

3. Land Revenue

4. Police /span>

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1919:

1. Local self-government was one of the reserved subjects under the Governor's control.

2. It established a system of dyarchy in the Provincial government.

3. It resulted in complete financial decentralisation in the governmental setup.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Test 1, Q.58

20.

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.

2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.

3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

With reference to Sterilization done by the RBI in the economy, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) It helps to counter black money and hawala transactions.

b) It helps to keep inflation under control and counters rupee depreciation as well.

c) It is done to increase export competitiveness and results in rupee appreciation.

d) It leads to reduction in excess forex reserves of the country with RBI.

Test-15, Q92

21.

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.

2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.

3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements with reference to credit rating agencies:

1. Currently, there is no statutory law governing them.

2. They are solely regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

3. Upgrading of sovereign rating may increase corporate and government bond subscriptions by foreign investors.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Test-3, Q.23

22.

With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.

2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.

3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.

4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

Consider the following statements with reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha:

1. Her / His date of election to the office is fixed by the Speaker.

2. She/He is nominated by the Speaker from the members of Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a)1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test-13, Q.2

23.

In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:

1. The 24-hour mean of PM_2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ an annual mean of PM_2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.

2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.

3. PM₁₀ can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.

4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(a) 1 and 2 only

With reference to the ground-level ozone, consider the following statements:

1. It is created by chemical reactions between oxides of nitrogen and volatile organic compounds (VOC).

2. It reaches the highest concentration levels during winters and cold weather.

3. The Montreal Protocol provides for a global treaty to protect human health from ground-level ozone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only

Test-12, Q.64

24.

Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

(a) They protect the body from environmental allergens.

(b) They alleviate the body's pain and inflammation.

(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

Consider the following statements with reference to Antigens:

1. These are substances that cause the body to make an immune response against that substance.

2. Allergens are antigens that cause allergic reactions either of the immediate or delayed-type.

3. T Cells are auto-antigens that originate within the body.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Test-14 Q.33

25.

Consider the following statements:

1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.

2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in manufacture of some cosmetics

3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:

1. Nanomaterials are more susceptible to change than bulk materials.

2. Nanomaterials must have at least one dimension that is less than 100 nanometers.

3. Nanoscale Titanium dioxide and Silicon dioxide are used in Paints and Coatings.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Nanomaterials:

Nano-sized particles exist in nature and can be created from a variety of products, such as carbon or minerals like silver, but nanomaterials by definition must have at least one dimension that is less than approximately 100 nanometers.

Test-19, Q. 91

26.

Consider the following pairs:

*Sl. No.*	*Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts*		*Location in the State of*
1.	Dhauli	:	Odisha
2.	Erragudi	:	Andhra Pradesh
3.	Jaugada	:	Madhya Pradesh
4.	Kalsi	:	Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs

Arrange the rock edicts of the Ashoka Empire from North to South.

1. Kalsi

2. Girnar

3. Yerragudi

4. Sopara

Which of the following arrangement is correct?

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 4, 3

C. 3, 4, 2, 1

D. 3, 4, 1, 2

Test-1, Q.75

27.

The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?

1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.

2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.

3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Which of the following are part of 12 Jyotirlingas located in India?

1. Kedarnath

2. Omkareshwar

3. Mahabaleshwar

4. Pashupatinath

5. Somnath

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1, 2 and 5 only

b) 3, 4 and 5 only

c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Test-14, Q.68

28.

With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.

2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.

3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.

4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Which of the following plastics are commonly used in food packaging?

1. Polyethylene Tertraphthalate

2. Styrene

3. Polymethyl methacrylate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

PET (also abbreviated PETE) is short for polyethylene terephthalate, the chemical name for polyester. PET is a clear, strong, and lightweight plastic that is widely used for packaging foods and beverages, especially convenience-sized soft drinks, juices and water.

Test-20, Q.76

29.

If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.

2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.

3. Power grids could be damaged.

4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.

5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.

6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.

7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Consider the following statements:

1. Solar flares are massive clouds of particles that are pushed out into space from the Sun’s atmosph ere.

2. Solar flares impact Earth only if they occur on the side of the sun facing the Earth.

3. An increase in sunspots results in a decrease in the possibility of geomagnetic storms on the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 only

Test-13, Q.99

30.

Consider the following freedom fighters:

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh

2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee

3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(a) 3 only

With reference to political conspiracies by Indian revolutionaries, consider the following pairs:

1. Manicktolla conspiracy: Barindra Kumar Ghosh

2. Bolshevik conspiracy case: Subhash Chandra Bose

3. Lahore conspiracy case: Sukhdev

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Test-11, Q.83

31.

The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuj was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?

(a) The best means of salvation was devotion.

(b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.

(d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

Consider the following statements:

1. Madhvacharya was the chief proponent of Advaita Vedanta.

2. Ramanujacharya was the chief proponent of Vishisht-Advaita.

3. Adi Shankaracharya and Ramanujacharya were contemporaries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 3 only

Test-8 Q.52

Target 2025

Target 2024

Target 2025

Target 2024

Target 2023

Target IFoS 2023

UPSC CSE Prelims 2022 Questions asked from Vajiram Test Series

by Vajiram & Ravi

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