Sl. No. |
UPSC Question |
|
Vajiram &
Ravi Question |
Mock Test No. |
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1. |
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: 1. They enable
the digital representation of physical assets. 2. They are
unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. 3. They can be
traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of
commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs): 1. It is a digital asset that links
ownership to unique physical or digital items. 2. NFTs and cryptocurrencies rely on
the same underlying blockchain technology. 3. It can be traded or exchanged for
one another NFT. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1
and 2 only B. 2
and 3 only C. 1
and 3 only D. 1, 2
and 3 |
Test-3,
Q.81 |
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2. |
Consider the following
statements: 1. A
bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of
the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill
is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of
India to give his/her assent. 3. A
Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by a special majority and there is
no provision for Joint
Sitting. Which
of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2
only (b) 2 and 3
only (c) 1 and 3
only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to a Constitutional Amendment Bill: 1. Such a bill can be introduced by
a private member in either House of the Parliament but requires prior
permission of the President. 2.
There is no provision for
holding a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament if there is a
deadlock over the passage of such a bill. 3. The President cannot withhold his
assent to such bill; he can only return the bill for reconsideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only
B. 2
and 3 only C. 2
only D. 1, 2
and 3 |
Test-2,
Q.24 |
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3. |
Consider the following countries: 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekistan (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 |
: |
Consider
the following countries: 1. Tajikistan 2.Turkmenistan 3.Uzbekistan 4.Kyrgyzstan 5.China Which of the above-mentioned countries
border Afghanistan? A. 1,
2, 3 and 4 B. 1,
2, 4 and 5 C. 1,
2, 3 and 5 D. 2,
3, 4 and 5 |
Test-3,
Q.92 |
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4. |
The “Miyawaki method (a)
Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas (b)
Development of gardens using genetically modified flora (c) Creation of mini forests in urban
areas (d)
Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to the Miyawaki technique of forests: 1. It involves planting trees as
close as possible in the same area. 2. It
can significantly reduce microbial activity on the surface. 3. It
is based on the commensalism type of ecological relationship. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1
and 2 only b) 2
only c) 3
only d) 1, 2
and 3 |
Test-10, Q.14 |
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5. |
With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB), which of the following statements are
correct? 1. The Governor
of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. 2. BBB
recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. 3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies
and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to the Bank Board Bureau: 1. It
is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Associa
tion
(IBA). 2. It
was established based on the recommendations of the P.J Nayak Committee. 3. It makes recommendations for the
appointment of full-time directors of Public Sector Banks. 4. The Governor of the Reserve Bank
of India is its ex-officio Chairman. Which of the statements given
above is/are not correct? (a) 2
and 4 only (b) 2
and 3 only (c) 1
and 4 only (d) 1,
4 and 3 only |
Test-13,
Q.88 |
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6. |
With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the
following statements: 1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its
territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from
baseline determined in accordance with the convention. 2. Ships of all
states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage
through the territorial sea. 3. The
Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the
baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea in measure. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to the various marine zones: 1. Territorial Seas are under exclusive
jurisdiction of the coastal states with no right of passage of any other
States. 2. The
Contiguous Zone only gives a State jurisdiction over the ocean's surface and
floor. 3. Coastal states have the right to
explore both living and non-living resources in the Exclusive Economic Zone. Which
of the statements given above are correct? a) 1
and 2 only b) 2
and 3 only c) 1
and 3 only d) 1, 2
and 3 |
Test-14,
Q.21 |
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7. |
Consider the following: 1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank 2. Missile Technology
Control Regime 3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation India is a member of which of the above? (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR): 1.
It imposes legal obligations on members to limit the proliferation of
missiles and missile technology. 2. India can only export missiles
with a maximum range of 300 kilometres as it is not a member of the MTCR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1
only b) 2
only c) Both
1 and 2 d)
Neither 1 Nor 2 India is a member of which of the
following organizations? 1.
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development 2.
International Monetary Fund 3.
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development 4. Asian Infrastructure and
Investment Bank Select
the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1,
2 and 3 only (b) 3
and 4 only (c) 1,
2 and 4 only (d) 1,
2, 3 and 4 |
Test-10,
Q.12 Test-13,
Q.98 |
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8. |
Consider the following
statements: 1.
Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act,
1971 was passed. 2.The Constitution of
India empowers the supreme court and High court to punish for contempt
of themselves. 3.
The Constitution of India
defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4.
In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt
of Court. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)
1 and 2 only (b)
1, 2 and 4 (c)
3 and 4 only (d)
3 only |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to Contempt of Court: 1. The term ‘contempt of court
has
not been defined by the Constitution. 2.
Attorney General’s consent is mandatory for initiating any contempt of co
urt
case. 3. The Supreme Court’s power to
punish for contempt is a constitutional power. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1
and 3 only B. 2
only C. 1
and 3 only D. 1, 2
and 3 |
Test-4,
Q.20 |
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9. |
With
reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: 1. The Dutch established their
factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati
rulers. 2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured
Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. 3. The
English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land
leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire. Which
of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1
and 2 only (b) 2
and 3 only (c) 1
and 3 only (d) 1,
2 and 3 |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to the European powers in India: 1. The Dutch East India Company
established its first factory in Surat in 1616. 2. The
Danish East India Company founded its first factory at Tranquebar in 1620. 3.
Chandranagore near Calcutta was an important Danish settlement. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1
and 2 only b) 2
only c) 2
and 3 only d) 1, 2
and 3 Consider
the following statements with reference to the Portuguese rule in India: 1.
Francisco de Almeida is credited with abolishing Sati under his rule. 2.
Alfonso de Albuquerque developed the cartaz system. 3. Nuno
da Cunha established Hooghly as Portuguese headquarters. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1
and 2 only B. 2
only C. 2
and 3 only D. 3
only Explanation:
· founder of the Portuguese power in
the East. The Portuguese, under Albuquerque, bolstered their stranglehold by
introducing a permit system for other ships and exercising control over the major
ship-building centres in the region. The non-availability of timber in the Gulf and Red Sea regions for
ship-building also helped the Portuguese in their objectives. Albuquerque acquired Goa from the
Sultan of Bijapur in 1510 with ease; the principal port of the Sultan of Bijapur became “t
he
first bit of Indian territory to be under the Europeans since the time of
Alexander the Great”. An interesting feature of his rule was th
abolition of sati. |
Test-14,
Q.26 Test-5,
Q.18 |
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10. |
Consider the following statements: 1. Tight
monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. 2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with
existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). 3. Devaluation
of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
: |
If the US Central Bank raises the
interest rate, which of the following is the likely impact on the Indian
economy? a) Flow
of funds from foreign investors might increase in India for safe and higher
returns. b) The
Indian companies will have reduced cost on external borrowings. c)
Raising funds from the bond market will be cheaper for the Indian government.
d) Rupee will depreciate against
the dollar, which may lead to inflation In India. |
Test-15, Q.57 |
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11. |
In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by
controlling inflation? (a) Department of Consumer Affairs (b) Expenditure Management Commission (c) Financial Stability and Development Council (d) Reserve
Bank of India |
: |
Which
of the following step is not likely to be taken up by the Reserve Bank of India to bring
down inflation? 1. Cut
Statutory Liquidity Ratio 2.
Increase Repo Rate 3.
Decrease Repo Rate Select
the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1
and 2 only B. 2 only
an> C. 1
and 3 only D. 2
and 3 only |
Test 1,
Q.42 |
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12. |
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following
statements: 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER)
indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase
in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade
competitiveness. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to
inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence
between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
: |
Consider
the following statements: 1. Real
Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is the weighted average of a country's
currency in relation to a basket of other major currencies. 2. An increase in a nation's REER is
an indication that its exports are becoming more expensive and its imports
are becoming cheaper. 3. Nominal Effective Exchange Rate
(NEER) is the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign
currency. Which
of the statements given above are correct? a) 1
and 2 only b) 2
and 3 only c) 1
and 3 only d) 1, 2
and 3 |
Test-12, Q.52 |
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13. |
In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes,
closures, entrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (a) Central Statistics Office (c) Labour Bureau (d) National Technical Manpower Information System |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to the Periodic Labour Force Survey
(PLFS) and Quarterly Employment Survey (QES): 1. The Central Statistics Office
publishes PLFS whereas the Labour bureau releases QES. 2. The PLFS collects labour force data
from the households whereas the QES collects employment data from the
non-farm establishments. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only
c) Both
1 and 2 d)
Neither 1 nor 2 |
Test-6,
Q.73 |
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14. |
With reference to India,
consider the following statements: 1.
Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but
corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as
advocates. 2.
Bar Councils have the power
to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law
colleges. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and
2 (d) Neither 1
nor 2 |
: |
With
reference to the Bar Council
of India, consider the following statements: 1. It
is a statutory body established by Parliament under the Advocates Act, 1961. 2. It sets standards for legal
education in India. 3. The
Attorney General of India is an ex-officio chairman of the Council. Which of
the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1
and 2 only b) 2
and 3 only c) 1
and 3 only d) 1, 2
and 3 |
Test-12,
Q18 |
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15. |
Which of the following is/are
the exclusive power(s) of
Lok Sabha? 1.
To ratify the declaration of
Emergency 2.
To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 3.
To impeach the President of India Select
the correct answer using the code given below: (a)
1 and 2 (b)
2 only (c)
1 and 3 (d)
3 only |
: |
With
reference to the Indian Polity, in which of the following situations does the
Rajya Sabha enjoy special
powers over the Lok Sabha? 1.
Creation of a new All India Service 2.
Initiating the process for the removal of the Vice President of India 3. Passing a resolution disapproving
the proclamation of National Emergency 4.
Authorizing the Parliament to make a law on a subject in the State List. Select
the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1, 2
and 3 only b) 1, 2
and 4 only c) 2, 3
and 4 only d) 1, 3
and 4 only |
Test-12,
Q.61 |
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16. |
With reference to
anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: 1.
The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party
within six months of being appointed to the House. 2. The law does not provide any
time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and
2 (d) Neither 1
nor 2 |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to Anti-defection provisions in
India: 1. A
legislator is deemed to have defected if he/she defies the party whip and can
lose his/her membership of the House. 2. The Constitution provides for a 6
month time period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification
plea. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only c) Both
1 and 2 d)
Neither 1 nor 2 |
Test-15,
Q.53 |
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17. |
Consider the following
statements: 1. Attorney General of India and
Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are
allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 2.
According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits
his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and
2 (d) Neither 1
nor 2 |
: |
With
reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following
statements: 1. The
constitution provides for his consent before initiating contempt of court
proceedings against an individual. 2. He
is entitled to all the privileges and immunities enjoyed by a member of
Parliament. 3 He is
not a government servant and thus not barred from private legal practice. 4. He
should not accept an appointment as a director in any company without the
consent of the Government of India. 5. He is the only officer who is
allowed by the constitution to participate in the meetings of the Parliament.
Which
of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 2
and 3 only b) 2, 4
and 5 only c) 2,
3, 4 and 5 only d) 1,
2, 3, 4 and 5 |
Test-8,
Q.5 |
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18. |
Consider
the following statements in respect of probiotics: 1.
Probiotics are made both of bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are
found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. 3.
Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1
only (b) 2
only (c) 1
and 3 (d) 2
and 3 |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to Gut Microbes in the humans: 1. Prebiotics are gut beneficial
bacteria and probiotics are food for these bacteria. 2. Gut bacteria exhibit the relation
of commensalism with humans. 3.
Prebiotics boosts immunity and reduces skin and respiratory allergies. 4.
Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium are examples of Probiotics. Which
of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 2
and 3 only b) 2
and 3 only c) 3
and 4 only d) 1, 2
and 4 only |
Test-17,
Q.68 |
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19. |
In the Government of India Act 1919,
the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved"
and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as
"Reserved" subjects? 1.
Administration of Justice 2.
Local Self-Government 3. Land
Revenue 4. Police
/span> Select
the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1,
2 and 3 (b) 2,
3 and 4 (c) 1,
3 and 4 (d) 1,
2 and 4 |
: |
Consider
the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1919: 1. Local self-government was one of
the reserved subjects under the Governor's control. 2. It
established a system of dyarchy in the Provincial government. 3. It
resulted in complete financial decentralisation in the governmental setup. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only C. 3
only D. 1
and 3 only |
Test 1,
Q.58 |
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20. |
With
reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. If the inflation is too high,
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2. If
the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the
market. 3. If
interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to
induce RBI to buy dollars. Which
of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
: |
With
reference to Sterilization done by the RBI in the economy, which one of the
following statements is correct? a) It
helps to counter black money and hawala transactions. b) It helps to keep inflation under control and counters rupee
depreciation as well. c) It
is done to increase export competitiveness and results in rupee appreciation.
d) It
leads to reduction in excess forex reserves of the country with RBI. |
Test-15,
Q92 |
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21. |
Consider the following statements: 1. In India,
credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. 2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited
company. 3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to credit rating agencies: 1.
Currently, there is no statutory law governing them. 2. They are solely regulated by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI). 3.
Upgrading of sovereign rating may increase corporate and government bond
subscriptions by foreign investors. Which
of the statements given above is/are not correct? A. 1 only B. 1
and 2 only C. 3
only D. 1, 2
and 3 |
Test-3,
Q.23 |
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22. |
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider
the following statements: 1.
As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker
shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2.
There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy
Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or
the ruling party. 3.
The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over
the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4.
The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of
Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded
by the Prime Minister. Which
of the statements given above are correct? (a)
1 and 3 only (b)
1, 2 and 3 (c)
3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only |
: |
Consider
the following statements with reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha: 1. Her / His date of election to the
office is fixed by the Speaker. 2. She/He is nominated by the Speaker
from
the members of Lok Sabha. Which
of the statements given above is/are not correct? (a)1
only (b) 2
only (c)
Both 1 and 2 (d)
Neither 1 nor 2 |
Test-13,
Q.2 |
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23. |
In the
context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The
24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m3 an
annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3. 2. In a year, the highest levels of
ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10
can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4.
Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which
of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1
and 4 only (c) 2,
3 and 4 (a) 1
and 2 only |
: |
With
reference to the ground-level ozone, consider the following statements: 1. It
is created by chemical reactions between oxides of nitrogen and volatile
organic compounds (VOC). 2. It reaches the highest
concentration levels during winters and cold weather. 3. The
Montreal Protocol provides for a global treaty to protect human health from
ground-level ozone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1
only b) 2
and 3 only c) 3
only d) 1
and 3 only |
Test-12,
Q.64 |
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24. |
Which
one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human
body? (a)
They protect the body from environmental allergens. (b)
They alleviate the body's pain and inflammation. (c)
They act as immunosuppressants in the body. (d) They protect the body from the
diseases caused by pathogens. |
: |
Consider the following statements with reference to
Antigens: 1. These are substances that cause the body to make an
immune response against that substance. 2. Allergens
are antigens that cause allergic reactions either of the immediate or
delayed-type. 3. T Cells are auto-antigens that
originate within the body. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Test-14 Q.33 |
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25. |
Consider
the following statements: 1. Other than those made by humans,
nanoparticles do not exist in nature. 2. Nanoparticles of some metallic
oxides are used in manufacture of some cosmetics 3.
Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter environment are unsafe
for humans. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1
only (b) 3
only (c) 1
and 2 (d) 2
and 3 |
: |
Consider
the following statements: 1.
Nanomaterials are more susceptible to change than bulk materials. 2.
Nanomaterials must have at least one dimension that is less than 100
nanometers. 3. Nanoscale Titanium dioxide and
Silicon dioxide are used in Paints and Coatings. Which
of the statements given above are correct? a) 1
and 2 only b) 2
and 3 only c) 1
and 3 only d) 1, 2
and 3 Explanation: Nanomaterials: Nano-sized
particles exist in nature and can be created from a variety of products, such
as carbon or minerals like silver, but
nanomaterials by definition must have at least one dimension that is less
than approximately 100 nanometers. |
Test-19, Q. 91 |
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26. |
Consider the following pairs:
How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) Only three pairs (d) All
four pairs |
: |
Arrange the rock edicts of the Ashoka
Empire from North to South. 1.
Kalsi 2.
Girnar 3. Yerragudi 4.
Sopara Which
of the following arrangement is correct? A. 1,
2, 3, 4 B. 1,
2, 4, 3 C. 3,
4, 2, 1 D. 3,
4, 1, 2 |
Test-1,
Q.75 |
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27. |
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House
near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding Somnath Temple? 1. Somnath
Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. 2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. 3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the
present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select
the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,
2 and 3 |
: |
Which of the following are part of 12 Jyotirlingas located in India? 1. Kedarnath 2. Omkareshwar 3. Mahabaleshwar 4. Pashupatinath 5. Somnath Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1, 2 and 5 only b) 3, 4 and 5 only c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 |
Test-14, Q.68 |
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28. |
With
reference to polyethylene terephthalate,
the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following
statements: 1. Its
fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their
properties. 2. Containers made of it can be used
to store any alcoholic beverage. 3.
Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products. 4.
Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing
greenhouse gas emissions. Which
of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1
and 3 (b) 2
and 4 (c) 1
and 4 (d) 2
and 3 |
: |
Which
of the following plastics are commonly used in food packaging? 1. Polyethylene Tertraphthalate
2.
Styrene 3.
Polymethyl methacrylate Select
the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only d) 1, 2
and 3 Explanation: PET (also
abbreviated PETE) is short for polyethylene terephthalate, the chemical name
for polyester. PET is a clear, strong, and lightweight plastic that is widely
used for packaging foods and beverages, especially convenience-sized soft
drinks, juices and water. |
Test-20, Q.76 |
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29. |
If a
major solar storm (solar
flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible
effects on the Earth? 1. GPS
and navigation systems could fail. 2.
Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. 3.
Power grids could be damaged. 4.
Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. 5.
Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. 6.
Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 7.
Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could
be interrupted. Select
the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1,
2, 4 and 5 only (b) 2,
3, 5, 6 and 7 only (c) 1,
3, 4, 6 and 7 only (d) 1,
2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 |
: |
Consider
the following statements: 1. Solar flares are massive
clouds of particles that are pushed out into space from the Sun’s atmosph
ere.
2. Solar flares impact Earth only
if they occur on the side of the sun facing the Earth. 3. An
increase in sunspots results in a decrease in the possibility of geomagnetic
storms on the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1
only (b) 1
and 2 only (c) 2
and 3 only (d) 2
only |
Test-13,
Q.99 |
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30. |
Consider
the following freedom fighters: 1.
Barindra Kumar Ghosh 2.
Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee 3. Rash
Behari Bose Who of
the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? (a) 1
and 2 (b) 2
only (c) 1
and 3 (a) 3
only |
: |
With
reference to political conspiracies by Indian revolutionaries, consider the
following pairs: 1. Manicktolla conspiracy: Barindra
Kumar Ghosh 2.
Bolshevik conspiracy case: Subhash Chandra Bose 3.
Lahore conspiracy case: Sukhdev Which
of the pairs given above are correctly matched? a) 1
and 2 only b) 2
and 3 only c) 1
and 3 only d) 1, 2
and 3 |
Test-11, Q.83 |
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31. |
The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuj
was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which
one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja? (a) The best
means of salvation was devotion. (b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative. (c) Logical arguments were essential means for the highest
bliss. (d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation. |
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Madhvacharya was the chief proponent of Advaita
Vedanta. 2. Ramanujacharya was the chief proponent of Vishisht-Advaita. 3. Adi Shankaracharya and Ramanujacharya were
contemporaries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 3 only |
Test-8 Q.52 |