UPSC Daily Quiz 26 September 2026
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Vajiram & Ravi’s Daily UPSC Quiz is designed to help aspirants strengthen their preparation by focusing on current affairs and concepts from the UPSC Syllabus 2026 for both Prelims & Mains. It allows candidates to revise important topics while regularly assessing their understanding and progress. Practicing these quizzes daily can improve accuracy, speed, and problem-solving skills. This consistent practice also enhances confidence in tackling exam-level questions. Overall, it is a valuable tool for both UPSC Prelims preparation and Mains revision.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bagmati River, recently seen in the news:
- It is a river that flows through Nepal and India.
- It is a major tributary of the Sone River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Heavy rain continued to disrupt life in Nepal, with the swollen Bagmati River overflowing its banks and raising concern in low-lying riverside communities.
About Bagmati River:
- It is a river that flows through south-central Nepal and northern Bihar, India.
- Course:
- It originates from Bagdwar, located in the Shivapuri Hills north of Kathmandu, Nepal.
- From there, it flows south through the Kathmandu Valley, passing through cities like Kathmandu and Patan.
- It is fed by springs and monsoon rainfall and a number of tributaries as it flows down from the Kathmandu valley floor and passes through the valley at Chovar.
- It flows southward through the Shivalik Range, the southernmost range of the Himalayas.
- It continues across the plains of Tarai into Bihar and then flows southeastward to enter the Burhi (“Old”) Gandak River.
- Total Length: 360 km
- It lies between the Gandak basin to the west and the Kosi basin to the east, forming a distinct river system across both countries.
- The basin transacts three distinct latitudinal physiographic zones (Mountain, Siwalik, and Terai) of the Nepal Himalayas.
- It is considered holy by both Hindus and Buddhists. The banks of this holy river shelter various temples.
- Pashupatinath Temple (a UNESCO World Heritage Site): A famous Shiva temple nestled on an outcrop above the river north of Kathmandu.
- Gokarneswor Temple: Located in the north of the Kathmandu Valley.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
Heavy rain continued to disrupt life in Nepal, with the swollen Bagmati River overflowing its banks and raising concern in low-lying riverside communities.
About Bagmati River:
- It is a river that flows through south-central Nepal and northern Bihar, India.
- Course:
- It originates from Bagdwar, located in the Shivapuri Hills north of Kathmandu, Nepal.
- From there, it flows south through the Kathmandu Valley, passing through cities like Kathmandu and Patan.
- It is fed by springs and monsoon rainfall and a number of tributaries as it flows down from the Kathmandu valley floor and passes through the valley at Chovar.
- It flows southward through the Shivalik Range, the southernmost range of the Himalayas.
- It continues across the plains of Tarai into Bihar and then flows southeastward to enter the Burhi (“Old”) Gandak River.
- Total Length: 360 km
- It lies between the Gandak basin to the west and the Kosi basin to the east, forming a distinct river system across both countries.
- The basin transacts three distinct latitudinal physiographic zones (Mountain, Siwalik, and Terai) of the Nepal Himalayas.
- It is considered holy by both Hindus and Buddhists. The banks of this holy river shelter various temples.
- Pashupatinath Temple (a UNESCO World Heritage Site): A famous Shiva temple nestled on an outcrop above the river north of Kathmandu.
- Gokarneswor Temple: Located in the north of the Kathmandu Valley.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Krasheninnikov Volcano, recently seen in the news:
- It is a large active shield volcano.
- It is located in Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Nasa-ISRO Nisar satellite recently captured detailed radar views of Russia’s Krasheninnikov volcano as lava spread across Kamchatka.
About Krasheninnikov Volcano:
- It is an active stratovolcano located in the Eastern Kamchatka Peninsula, Russia.
- The Kamchatka Peninsula lies along the Pacific “Ring of Fire.”
- There are 114 volcanoes on the Kamchatka Peninsula that have erupted during the Holocene Epoch (approximately 12,000 years ago to the present).
- The summit of the volcano reaches an elevation of 1,856 meters and lies within a collapse-originated caldera measuring 9 by 11 kilometers, dating back to 39,000 years ago.
- The volcanic complex consists of two adjacent main stratovolcano cones.
- The southern cone is crowned by a crater approximately 800 to 900 meters in diameter, while the northern cone is younger and exhibits a telescopic structure.
- Within the northern cone, smaller craters measuring 800 meters in diameter and lava cones have formed.
- The sides of both cones are covered with ejecta.
- Volcanic Activity:
- Its last eruption took place about 400 or 600 years ago.
- 2025 Eruption: Krasheninnikov volcano erupted on 2 August 2025, three days after a nearby magnitude 8.8 earthquake. Ash emissions reached an altitude of 20,000 ft.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Nasa-ISRO Nisar satellite recently captured detailed radar views of Russia’s Krasheninnikov volcano as lava spread across Kamchatka.
About Krasheninnikov Volcano:
- It is an active stratovolcano located in the Eastern Kamchatka Peninsula, Russia.
- The Kamchatka Peninsula lies along the Pacific “Ring of Fire.”
- There are 114 volcanoes on the Kamchatka Peninsula that have erupted during the Holocene Epoch (approximately 12,000 years ago to the present).
- The summit of the volcano reaches an elevation of 1,856 meters and lies within a collapse-originated caldera measuring 9 by 11 kilometers, dating back to 39,000 years ago.
- The volcanic complex consists of two adjacent main stratovolcano cones.
- The southern cone is crowned by a crater approximately 800 to 900 meters in diameter, while the northern cone is younger and exhibits a telescopic structure.
- Within the northern cone, smaller craters measuring 800 meters in diameter and lava cones have formed.
- The sides of both cones are covered with ejecta.
- Volcanic Activity:
- Its last eruption took place about 400 or 600 years ago.
- 2025 Eruption: Krasheninnikov volcano erupted on 2 August 2025, three days after a nearby magnitude 8.8 earthquake. Ash emissions reached an altitude of 20,000 ft.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich among the following best describes ICGS Shaunak, recently seen in the news?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
Indian Coast Guard (ICG) ship Shaunak recently sailed from Chennai for Perth, Australia, as part of the QUAD-at-Sea Ship Observer Mission, aimed at enhancing maritime interoperability among India, Australia, Japan, and the United States.
About ICGS Shaunak:
- It is an Indian Coast Guard ship, specifically an Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV) of the Samarth-class.
- It has been designed and built indigenously by Goa Shipyard Ltd.
- ICGS Shaunak was commissioned on February 21, 2017.
- It is based at Visakhapatnam under the administrative and operational control of the Commander, Coast Guard Region (East).
- It is deployed extensively for EEZ surveillance and other duties to safeguard the maritime interests of India.
- Features:
- With a length of 105 m, the ship draws 2500 tons (GRT) propelled by two 9100 KW diesel engines.
- It has a maximum speed of 26 knots and has an endurance of 6500 NM at economical speed.
- Its features include a 30 mm CRN 91 Naval Gun, Integrated Bridge System (IBS), Integrated Machinery Control System (IMCS), Power Management System (PMS), and High Power External Fire Fighting System.
- The ship is designed to carry one twin-engine Light Helicopter and five high-speed boats, including two Quick Reaction Inflatable Boats for swift boarding operations, search and rescue, law enforcement, and maritime patrol.
- The ship is also capable of carrying pollution response equipment to contain oil spills at sea.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
Indian Coast Guard (ICG) ship Shaunak recently sailed from Chennai for Perth, Australia, as part of the QUAD-at-Sea Ship Observer Mission, aimed at enhancing maritime interoperability among India, Australia, Japan, and the United States.
About ICGS Shaunak:
- It is an Indian Coast Guard ship, specifically an Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV) of the Samarth-class.
- It has been designed and built indigenously by Goa Shipyard Ltd.
- ICGS Shaunak was commissioned on February 21, 2017.
- It is based at Visakhapatnam under the administrative and operational control of the Commander, Coast Guard Region (East).
- It is deployed extensively for EEZ surveillance and other duties to safeguard the maritime interests of India.
- Features:
- With a length of 105 m, the ship draws 2500 tons (GRT) propelled by two 9100 KW diesel engines.
- It has a maximum speed of 26 knots and has an endurance of 6500 NM at economical speed.
- Its features include a 30 mm CRN 91 Naval Gun, Integrated Bridge System (IBS), Integrated Machinery Control System (IMCS), Power Management System (PMS), and High Power External Fire Fighting System.
- The ship is designed to carry one twin-engine Light Helicopter and five high-speed boats, including two Quick Reaction Inflatable Boats for swift boarding operations, search and rescue, law enforcement, and maritime patrol.
- The ship is also capable of carrying pollution response equipment to contain oil spills at sea.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Global Cities Index (GCI) 2026, consider the following statements:
- It is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
- Paris achieved the highest overall ranking in the index.
- Among Indian cities, Mumbai achieved the highest overall ranking in the index.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
Delhi has secured the 268th position among 1,000 cities in the Oxford Economics Global Cities Index 2026.
About Global Cities Index (GCI):
- It is an annual report published by Oxford Economics, a leading global economic advisory firm.
- The index ranks 1000 cities across the world based on five major factors: Economics, Human Capital, Quality of Life, Environment and Governance.
- The rankings are designed to look at both a city’s present performance and its future potential.
- GCI 2026 Highlights:
- New York has taken the top spot in the index.
- London has been ranked second, followed by Paris at third, Seattle at fourth, and San Francisco at fifth.
- India Specific Findings:
- Around 100 Indian cities feature among the 1,000 major cities evaluated worldwide.
- Delhi has the highest overall ranking at 268, followed by Bengaluru at 311, Mumbai at 330, Chennai at 381, Hyderabad at 421, and Pune at 427.
- 55 Indian cities have secured spots among the world’s top 100 fastest-growing city economies.
- Delhi is currently the world’s 63rd-largest city economy. Oxford Economics projects that it could become the 14th-largest by 2050, with economic output exceeding USD 2 trillion.
- Delhi’s strongest performance came in the Human Capital category, where it ranked 13th globally, ahead of Toronto, Seoul, and Beijing.
- Mumbai is India’s leading city for corporate headquarters, ranking 23rd globally on that measure.
- Mumbai’s city economy, currently the world’s 99th-largest, could rise to 36th-largest by 2050.
- Bengaluru climbed 20 places to 311th globally and was named a ‘City to Watch’, recording the biggest improvement among India’s six largest metropolitan cities.
- Bengaluru is also among the 10 fastest-growing cities globally by forecast GDP growth.
- Chennai and Hyderabad ranked 16th and 15th worldwide, respectively, for forecast GDP growth.
- The primary reason behind Indian cities ranking below the 250th position in the overall index is the lack of adequate infrastructure and quality of life.
- Indian cities rank very low in terms of income equality.
- Delhi ranks second globally for having the worst air quality.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
Delhi has secured the 268th position among 1,000 cities in the Oxford Economics Global Cities Index 2026.
About Global Cities Index (GCI):
- It is an annual report published by Oxford Economics, a leading global economic advisory firm.
- The index ranks 1000 cities across the world based on five major factors: Economics, Human Capital, Quality of Life, Environment and Governance.
- The rankings are designed to look at both a city’s present performance and its future potential.
- GCI 2026 Highlights:
- New York has taken the top spot in the index.
- London has been ranked second, followed by Paris at third, Seattle at fourth, and San Francisco at fifth.
- India Specific Findings:
- Around 100 Indian cities feature among the 1,000 major cities evaluated worldwide.
- Delhi has the highest overall ranking at 268, followed by Bengaluru at 311, Mumbai at 330, Chennai at 381, Hyderabad at 421, and Pune at 427.
- 55 Indian cities have secured spots among the world’s top 100 fastest-growing city economies.
- Delhi is currently the world’s 63rd-largest city economy. Oxford Economics projects that it could become the 14th-largest by 2050, with economic output exceeding USD 2 trillion.
- Delhi’s strongest performance came in the Human Capital category, where it ranked 13th globally, ahead of Toronto, Seoul, and Beijing.
- Mumbai is India’s leading city for corporate headquarters, ranking 23rd globally on that measure.
- Mumbai’s city economy, currently the world’s 99th-largest, could rise to 36th-largest by 2050.
- Bengaluru climbed 20 places to 311th globally and was named a ‘City to Watch’, recording the biggest improvement among India’s six largest metropolitan cities.
- Bengaluru is also among the 10 fastest-growing cities globally by forecast GDP growth.
- Chennai and Hyderabad ranked 16th and 15th worldwide, respectively, for forecast GDP growth.
- The primary reason behind Indian cities ranking below the 250th position in the overall index is the lack of adequate infrastructure and quality of life.
- Indian cities rank very low in terms of income equality.
- Delhi ranks second globally for having the worst air quality.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mission Pegase 26, recently seen in the news:
- It is a naval expedition in the Indo-Pacific.
- It is conducted by France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
As part of Mission Pégase 26, the French Air and Space Force recently deployed four Rafale F4 fighters, three A330 MRTT Phénix multi-role tanker transport aircraft, and two A400M Atlas aircraft to Jodhpur.
About Mission Pegase 26:
- It is the seventh edition of France’s long-range air projection exercise.
- It is being conducted from September 8 to October 15.
- Distance: More than 40,000 kilometres
- Force: Around 300 personnel, four Rafale F4 fighters, three A330 MRTT Phénix multi-role tanker transport aircraft, two A400M Atlas aircraft.
- Route:
- Greenland, Canada, Alaska, Japan, South Korea, Indonesia, India, Qatar, Réunion, and then Egypt.
- Pegase 26 is following a route linking the Arctic, Indo-Pacific, and Middle East.
- Stated aims: Operational readiness, strategic partnerships, freedom of air navigation.
- India is a key stop on the Indo-Pacific leg of Pegase 26.
- In India, the French contingent will participate in Tarang Shakti.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
As part of Mission Pégase 26, the French Air and Space Force recently deployed four Rafale F4 fighters, three A330 MRTT Phénix multi-role tanker transport aircraft, and two A400M Atlas aircraft to Jodhpur.
About Mission Pegase 26:
- It is the seventh edition of France’s long-range air projection exercise.
- It is being conducted from September 8 to October 15.
- Distance: More than 40,000 kilometres
- Force: Around 300 personnel, four Rafale F4 fighters, three A330 MRTT Phénix multi-role tanker transport aircraft, two A400M Atlas aircraft.
- Route:
- Greenland, Canada, Alaska, Japan, South Korea, Indonesia, India, Qatar, Réunion, and then Egypt.
- Pegase 26 is following a route linking the Arctic, Indo-Pacific, and Middle East.
- Stated aims: Operational readiness, strategic partnerships, freedom of air navigation.
- India is a key stop on the Indo-Pacific leg of Pegase 26.
- In India, the French contingent will participate in Tarang Shakti.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsDebrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in news, is located in:
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
A recent habitat revival of Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary fuelled its flagship Indian gaur species population from 659 in 2024 to 848 in 2026.
About Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary:
- Location: It is situated in the Bargarh district of Odisha.
- It is located near Hirakud Dam (the longest dam in India and the longest earthen dam in the world) on the Mahanadi River.
- It finds a special mention because of noted freedom fighter Veer Surendra Sai.
- During his rebellion against the British, his base at Barapathara was located within the sanctuary.
- Vegetation: Most of the plant sanctuary is covered with mixed and dry deciduous forest.
- Flora: Major trees found here are Sal, Asana, Bija, Aanla, Dhaura, etc.
- Fauna:
- Indian leopards, sloth bears, chousingha (four-horned antelope), sambar deer, gaurs (Indian bison), wild boars, and Indian wild dogs (dholes) are among the notable animal residents.
- It is one of the most flocked wintering grounds of migratory birds crested serpent eagle, Flower Peckers, red-vented bulbul, tree pie, drongo, and white eye oriental.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/lifestyle/environment/2026/Sep/25/how-grassland-revival-fuelled-indian-gaur-population-in-debrigarh-sanctuary
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
A recent habitat revival of Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary fuelled its flagship Indian gaur species population from 659 in 2024 to 848 in 2026.
About Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary:
- Location: It is situated in the Bargarh district of Odisha.
- It is located near Hirakud Dam (the longest dam in India and the longest earthen dam in the world) on the Mahanadi River.
- It finds a special mention because of noted freedom fighter Veer Surendra Sai.
- During his rebellion against the British, his base at Barapathara was located within the sanctuary.
- Vegetation: Most of the plant sanctuary is covered with mixed and dry deciduous forest.
- Flora: Major trees found here are Sal, Asana, Bija, Aanla, Dhaura, etc.
- Fauna:
- Indian leopards, sloth bears, chousingha (four-horned antelope), sambar deer, gaurs (Indian bison), wild boars, and Indian wild dogs (dholes) are among the notable animal residents.
- It is one of the most flocked wintering grounds of migratory birds crested serpent eagle, Flower Peckers, red-vented bulbul, tree pie, drongo, and white eye oriental.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/lifestyle/environment/2026/Sep/25/how-grassland-revival-fuelled-indian-gaur-population-in-debrigarh-sanctuary
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Blazar:
- They are energetic objects formed in young galaxies or galaxies undergoing a collision.
- They consist of a supermassive black hole and the accretion disk.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Astronomers tracked some of the blazars with the highest energy radiations revealing new clues about the sources of X-ray emission in these energetic objects.
About Blazar:
- Blazars are among the most energetic objects in the Universe.
- Formation: They typically form in young galaxies or galaxies undergoing a collision.
- A blazar consists of a supermassive black hole, the accretion disk and the galaxy that hosts them.
- They are active galaxies powered by supermassive black holes at their centres, where matter falling towards the black hole releases large amounts of energy.
- These systems also emit high-speed particle jets directed close to Earth’s line of sight, making them appear exceptionally bright.
- A particularly extreme group of these objects are TeV blazars, which produce very-high-energy gamma rays reaching tera-electron volt energies.
- Significance of Blazars:
- They are instrumental for exploring extreme physics that cannot be recreated on Earth.
- The relativistic jets they produce offer clues about how matter behaves near supermassive black holes.
- Challenges in Observation:
- As the powerful jets from blazars are directed almost toward Earth, their X-ray spectra are generally dominated by emission from the jet.
- This makes it difficult to identify radiation from other parts of the galaxy, such as the accretion disk around the black hole.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2314819®=48&lang=2
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Astronomers tracked some of the blazars with the highest energy radiations revealing new clues about the sources of X-ray emission in these energetic objects.
About Blazar:
- Blazars are among the most energetic objects in the Universe.
- Formation: They typically form in young galaxies or galaxies undergoing a collision.
- A blazar consists of a supermassive black hole, the accretion disk and the galaxy that hosts them.
- They are active galaxies powered by supermassive black holes at their centres, where matter falling towards the black hole releases large amounts of energy.
- These systems also emit high-speed particle jets directed close to Earth’s line of sight, making them appear exceptionally bright.
- A particularly extreme group of these objects are TeV blazars, which produce very-high-energy gamma rays reaching tera-electron volt energies.
- Significance of Blazars:
- They are instrumental for exploring extreme physics that cannot be recreated on Earth.
- The relativistic jets they produce offer clues about how matter behaves near supermassive black holes.
- Challenges in Observation:
- As the powerful jets from blazars are directed almost toward Earth, their X-ray spectra are generally dominated by emission from the jet.
- This makes it difficult to identify radiation from other parts of the galaxy, such as the accretion disk around the black hole.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2314819®=48&lang=2
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Digital Connectivity Rating Platform:
- It is an integrated digital platform designed for rating of digital connectivity of properties across residential, commercial, and government properties.
- It was launched by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) launched the Digital Connectivity Rating (DCR) Platform.
About Digital Connectivity Rating Platform:
- It is an integrated digital platform designed for rating of digital connectivity of properties across residential, commercial, and government properties.
- It was launched by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India.
- Objective: To encourage property managers to build digitally connected and future ready smart properties and assess whether properties are equipped with robust digital infrastructure, enhancing user experience for tenants, residents, and businesses.
- The platform provides a public interface for consumers to view the properties rated for digital connectivity.
- It brings Property Managers (PMs) registered Digital Connectivity Rating Agency (DCRA) and consumer onto a common digital interface.
- Features
- Property Managers
- They can register their properties in category of Public, Government, Commercial, Private etc., submit rating applications, upload the prescribed information and documents, select a registered DCRA and track the status of their application through the platform.
- The platform supports both constructed and under-construction properties.
- Registered DCRAs
- They can access assigned applications, undertake assessments, record observations and test results, manage supporting documentation and complete the rating process in accordance with the prescribed framework.
- Field assessments will be facilitated through a dedicated DCRA mobile app.
- Consumers:
- They can search for a rated property by property name, certificate ID or location.
- They can view the property’s digitally signed rating certificate and verify its authenticity through the QR code provided on the certificate.
- Property Managers
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseDetail.aspx?PRID=2314867®=48&lang=2
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) launched the Digital Connectivity Rating (DCR) Platform.
About Digital Connectivity Rating Platform:
- It is an integrated digital platform designed for rating of digital connectivity of properties across residential, commercial, and government properties.
- It was launched by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India.
- Objective: To encourage property managers to build digitally connected and future ready smart properties and assess whether properties are equipped with robust digital infrastructure, enhancing user experience for tenants, residents, and businesses.
- The platform provides a public interface for consumers to view the properties rated for digital connectivity.
- It brings Property Managers (PMs) registered Digital Connectivity Rating Agency (DCRA) and consumer onto a common digital interface.
- Features
- Property Managers
- They can register their properties in category of Public, Government, Commercial, Private etc., submit rating applications, upload the prescribed information and documents, select a registered DCRA and track the status of their application through the platform.
- The platform supports both constructed and under-construction properties.
- Registered DCRAs
- They can access assigned applications, undertake assessments, record observations and test results, manage supporting documentation and complete the rating process in accordance with the prescribed framework.
- Field assessments will be facilitated through a dedicated DCRA mobile app.
- Consumers:
- They can search for a rated property by property name, certificate ID or location.
- They can view the property’s digitally signed rating certificate and verify its authenticity through the QR code provided on the certificate.
- Property Managers
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseDetail.aspx?PRID=2314867®=48&lang=2
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Caspian Cobra, consider the following statements:
- It thrives in arid and semi-arid regions, including rocky hillsides and scrublands.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
- It is found in parts of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and Kyrgyzstan.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Researchers have documented the first confirmed snakebite envenomation and subsequent human deaths in India caused by the venomous Caspian cobra (Naja oxiana).
About Caspian Cobra:
- It is the most venomous cobra in the world.
- It is a species of venomous snake in the family Elapidae.
- Other names: It is also called the Central Asian cobra, ladle snake, Oxus cobra, or Russian cobra.
- Habitat: It thrives in arid and semi-arid regions, including rocky hillsides and scrublands.
- Distribution: It is native to Central Asia.
- It is found in parts of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, the Fergana Valley, north and east Afghanistan, northeastern Iran, the northern half of Pakistan from the Kashmir region east to the state of Himachal Pradesh in India, and in southwestern Tajikistan.
- Features
- It is slightly shorter than the Indian cobra.
- Its body is slender, uniformly thick from head to midbody, and ends with a medium-length tail.
- It has long cervical ribs capable of expansion to form a hood. It has no hood marking, just a plain colour instead.
- When threatened, it will spread its hood to appear larger and more intimidating.
- Its coloration can vary from light brown to dark brown or even black, sometimes with a faint banding pattern.
- Behavior: These snakes are good climbers and able swimmers.
- Diet: These are carnivores and prey on small mammals, amphibians, and birds.
- Hibernation: They hibernate from late September or late October to late March-April.
- Conservation Status
- IUCN Red List: Near Threatened
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/himachal-pradesh/researchers-document-first-human-deaths-by-caspian-cobra-in-india/article71508064.ece
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
Researchers have documented the first confirmed snakebite envenomation and subsequent human deaths in India caused by the venomous Caspian cobra (Naja oxiana).
About Caspian Cobra:
- It is the most venomous cobra in the world.
- It is a species of venomous snake in the family Elapidae.
- Other names: It is also called the Central Asian cobra, ladle snake, Oxus cobra, or Russian cobra.
- Habitat: It thrives in arid and semi-arid regions, including rocky hillsides and scrublands.
- Distribution: It is native to Central Asia.
- It is found in parts of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, the Fergana Valley, north and east Afghanistan, northeastern Iran, the northern half of Pakistan from the Kashmir region east to the state of Himachal Pradesh in India, and in southwestern Tajikistan.
- Features
- It is slightly shorter than the Indian cobra.
- Its body is slender, uniformly thick from head to midbody, and ends with a medium-length tail.
- It has long cervical ribs capable of expansion to form a hood. It has no hood marking, just a plain colour instead.
- When threatened, it will spread its hood to appear larger and more intimidating.
- Its coloration can vary from light brown to dark brown or even black, sometimes with a faint banding pattern.
- Behavior: These snakes are good climbers and able swimmers.
- Diet: These are carnivores and prey on small mammals, amphibians, and birds.
- Hibernation: They hibernate from late September or late October to late March-April.
- Conservation Status
- IUCN Red List: Near Threatened
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/himachal-pradesh/researchers-document-first-human-deaths-by-caspian-cobra-in-india/article71508064.ece
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome:
- It is a group of conditions that affect the connective tissue of the human body.
- It is caused by the bacteria and Parasites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recent researches across the world provided new insights about causes of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome and its association with hormones level and sleep apnea.
About Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome:
- It is a group of conditions that affect the connective tissue of the human body, typically loosening or weakening it.
- Connective tissue supports and provides flexibility to the skin, tendons, ligaments, bones, blood vessels, and organs.
- EDS is generally inherited and is commonly associated with hypermobility, meaning one’s joints can move past their normal range of motion.
- Cause: EDS is caused by certain genetic changes and is generally passed down to children by their parents.
- Types of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome:
- Hypermobile EDS (hEDS):
- It is the most common form of EDS.
- It shows symptoms such as stretchy, fragile skin, loose and clicky joints that dislocate easily, joint pain, and joint hypermobility.
- hEDS may also manifest as extreme fatigue, skin that bruises quickly, digestive issues, and poor bladder control etc.
- Classical EDS:
- It is less common type of EDS, also exhibits similar symptoms, but it mostly affects the skin.
- A person with this condition might have very stretchy and fragile skin that bruises easily or splits easily, especially around the elbows, on the forehead, and on the knees.
- Vascular EDS:
- It affects one’s internal organs.
- This results in fragile blood vessels that can tear easily and cause internal bleeding, which can be life-threatening.
- This condition poses a serious risk of bowel tearing, womb tearing during pregnancy, and lung collapse etc.
- Kyphoscoliotic EDS (kEDS):
- It affects the curvature of the spine. It might manifest during early childhood and is also characterised by joint hypermobility and loose joints.
- Treatment: There is no cure for EDS, but symptoms, especially those of hEDS, can be managed.
- Hypermobile EDS (hEDS):
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/all-you-need-to-know-about-ehlers-danlos-syndrome/article71498626.ece/amp/
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recent researches across the world provided new insights about causes of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome and its association with hormones level and sleep apnea.
About Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome:
- It is a group of conditions that affect the connective tissue of the human body, typically loosening or weakening it.
- Connective tissue supports and provides flexibility to the skin, tendons, ligaments, bones, blood vessels, and organs.
- EDS is generally inherited and is commonly associated with hypermobility, meaning one’s joints can move past their normal range of motion.
- Cause: EDS is caused by certain genetic changes and is generally passed down to children by their parents.
- Types of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome:
- Hypermobile EDS (hEDS):
- It is the most common form of EDS.
- It shows symptoms such as stretchy, fragile skin, loose and clicky joints that dislocate easily, joint pain, and joint hypermobility.
- hEDS may also manifest as extreme fatigue, skin that bruises quickly, digestive issues, and poor bladder control etc.
- Classical EDS:
- It is less common type of EDS, also exhibits similar symptoms, but it mostly affects the skin.
- A person with this condition might have very stretchy and fragile skin that bruises easily or splits easily, especially around the elbows, on the forehead, and on the knees.
- Vascular EDS:
- It affects one’s internal organs.
- This results in fragile blood vessels that can tear easily and cause internal bleeding, which can be life-threatening.
- This condition poses a serious risk of bowel tearing, womb tearing during pregnancy, and lung collapse etc.
- Kyphoscoliotic EDS (kEDS):
- It affects the curvature of the spine. It might manifest during early childhood and is also characterised by joint hypermobility and loose joints.
- Treatment: There is no cure for EDS, but symptoms, especially those of hEDS, can be managed.
- Hypermobile EDS (hEDS):
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/all-you-need-to-know-about-ehlers-danlos-syndrome/article71498626.ece/amp/
Last updated on Sep, 2026
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