UPSC Daily Quiz 22 August 2026
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Vajiram & Ravi’s Daily UPSC Quiz is designed to help aspirants strengthen their preparation by focusing on current affairs and concepts from the UPSC Syllabus 2026 for both Prelims & Mains. It allows candidates to revise important topics while regularly assessing their understanding and progress. Practicing these quizzes daily can improve accuracy, speed, and problem-solving skills. This consistent practice also enhances confidence in tackling exam-level questions. Overall, it is a valuable tool for both UPSC Prelims preparation and Mains revision.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich among the following best describes INS Mangrol, recently seen in the news?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
INS Mangrol, the third of the eight anti-submarine warfare shallow watercraft (ASW SWC), indigenously designed and constructed by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), was delivered to the Indian Navy recently.
About INS Mangrol:
- It is an Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) of the Indian Navy.
- It is the third of the eight ASW SWC indigenously designed and constructed by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL).
- It has been designed primarily for anti-submarine warfare operations in shallow coastal waters, where detecting and tracking submarines can be particularly challenging.
- The warship can also undertake underwater surveillance, Search and Rescue operations and Low Intensity Maritime Operations, besides possessing mine-laying capabilities.
- The warship has been named ‘Mangrol’ after the historic and strategically significant coastal township of Mangrol in Gujarat’s Surat district.
- Features:
- The ASW SWC ships are 78 m long and have a displacement of approx. 900 tons, with a maximum speed of 25 knots.
- It is powered by a Diesel Engine-Waterjet Propulsion system.
- It is fitted with advanced systems, including lightweight torpedoes, indigenous ASW rockets, and shallow-water sonars.
- It has over 80% indigenous content.
- It has been designed and constructed in accordance with the classification rules of Det Norske Veritas (DNV).
- DNV is the world’s leading classification society and a recognized advisor for the maritime industry.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
INS Mangrol, the third of the eight anti-submarine warfare shallow watercraft (ASW SWC), indigenously designed and constructed by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), was delivered to the Indian Navy recently.
About INS Mangrol:
- It is an Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) of the Indian Navy.
- It is the third of the eight ASW SWC indigenously designed and constructed by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL).
- It has been designed primarily for anti-submarine warfare operations in shallow coastal waters, where detecting and tracking submarines can be particularly challenging.
- The warship can also undertake underwater surveillance, Search and Rescue operations and Low Intensity Maritime Operations, besides possessing mine-laying capabilities.
- The warship has been named ‘Mangrol’ after the historic and strategically significant coastal township of Mangrol in Gujarat’s Surat district.
- Features:
- The ASW SWC ships are 78 m long and have a displacement of approx. 900 tons, with a maximum speed of 25 knots.
- It is powered by a Diesel Engine-Waterjet Propulsion system.
- It is fitted with advanced systems, including lightweight torpedoes, indigenous ASW rockets, and shallow-water sonars.
- It has over 80% indigenous content.
- It has been designed and constructed in accordance with the classification rules of Det Norske Veritas (DNV).
- DNV is the world’s leading classification society and a recognized advisor for the maritime industry.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Golconda Fort:
- It is a historic fort located near Hyderabad, Telangana.
- It was originally erected by the Qutub Shahi Dynasty during the 13th century CE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) recently said a structure recently found near the historic Golconda Fort in Hyderabad is not a tunnel, as had been reported, but a small rectangular chamber made of granite stone.
About Golconda Fort:
- It is a historic fort located towards the western outskirts of Hyderabad, Telangana.
- The name originates from the Telugu words “Golla Konda” meaning “Shepherd’s Hill”.
- History:
- It was erected in 1143 under the Kakatiya Dynasty.
- However, it rose to prominence when it came under the rule of the Qutub Shahi Dynasty during the 16th century, e., when Quli Qutub Shah declared his independence from the Bahmani Sultanate in 1518.
- The striking fort has since then expanded from a mud fortress to a lofty structure with a 10 km outer wall.
- From 1518 to 1591, Golconda served as the capital of the Qutb Shahi rulers before they shifted their capital to Hyderabad.
- After a failed attempt in the year 1686, the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb was finally able to breach the impregnable fort in 1687 after a long nine-month siege.
- After this, Golconda became part of the Mughal Empire.
- Golconda region was world-famous for its diamond mines. Some of the most valuable diamonds in history, including the Koh-i-Noor, Hope Diamond, and Nassak Diamond, were once associated with this region.
- Architecture:
- It is a grand structure built on a granite hill of altitude 400 feet with a circumference of 7 km, displaying the beautiful fusion of Hindu-Islamic style of architecture.
- Its wall comprises 8 gates and 87 bastions, each one reaching the height of 50-60 feet.
- Amongst the eight gates, Fateh Darwaza is the main gate, as the victorious march of King Aurangzeb proceeded through it.
- At Fateh Darwaza one can witness fantastic acoustical effects, which is one among the many famous engineering marvels at Golconda.
- There are three powerful consecutive fortification walls, each within the other.
- The first line of the wall contains a town; the second line is a double wall that runs around the foot of the hill on which the citadel stands.
- The third line is further up the hill, lying within the second, composed of masonry and natural boulders.
- The tombs of the Qutub Shahi kings, built with Islamic architecture, lie about 1 km north of the outer wall of Golconda.
- Situated with the fortress are the dwellings of the queens and princesses and homesteads of their retainers.
- It is quite famous for its royal apartments, parade grounds, numerous halls, and mosques.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) recently said a structure recently found near the historic Golconda Fort in Hyderabad is not a tunnel, as had been reported, but a small rectangular chamber made of granite stone.
About Golconda Fort:
- It is a historic fort located towards the western outskirts of Hyderabad, Telangana.
- The name originates from the Telugu words “Golla Konda” meaning “Shepherd’s Hill”.
- History:
- It was erected in 1143 under the Kakatiya Dynasty.
- However, it rose to prominence when it came under the rule of the Qutub Shahi Dynasty during the 16th century, e., when Quli Qutub Shah declared his independence from the Bahmani Sultanate in 1518.
- The striking fort has since then expanded from a mud fortress to a lofty structure with a 10 km outer wall.
- From 1518 to 1591, Golconda served as the capital of the Qutb Shahi rulers before they shifted their capital to Hyderabad.
- After a failed attempt in the year 1686, the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb was finally able to breach the impregnable fort in 1687 after a long nine-month siege.
- After this, Golconda became part of the Mughal Empire.
- Golconda region was world-famous for its diamond mines. Some of the most valuable diamonds in history, including the Koh-i-Noor, Hope Diamond, and Nassak Diamond, were once associated with this region.
- Architecture:
- It is a grand structure built on a granite hill of altitude 400 feet with a circumference of 7 km, displaying the beautiful fusion of Hindu-Islamic style of architecture.
- Its wall comprises 8 gates and 87 bastions, each one reaching the height of 50-60 feet.
- Amongst the eight gates, Fateh Darwaza is the main gate, as the victorious march of King Aurangzeb proceeded through it.
- At Fateh Darwaza one can witness fantastic acoustical effects, which is one among the many famous engineering marvels at Golconda.
- There are three powerful consecutive fortification walls, each within the other.
- The first line of the wall contains a town; the second line is a double wall that runs around the foot of the hill on which the citadel stands.
- The third line is further up the hill, lying within the second, composed of masonry and natural boulders.
- The tombs of the Qutub Shahi kings, built with Islamic architecture, lie about 1 km north of the outer wall of Golconda.
- Situated with the fortress are the dwellings of the queens and princesses and homesteads of their retainers.
- It is quite famous for its royal apartments, parade grounds, numerous halls, and mosques.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Lake Erie, recently seen in the news:
- It is the largest of the five Great Lakes in North America.
- It forms the boundary between Canada and the United States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
A 1,256-MW nuclear reactor on the southern shore of Lake Erie in Ohio has unintentionally become a wildlife refuge, with its 1,100-acre buffer zone providing habitat and nesting grounds for threatened spotted turtles.
About Lake Erie:
- It is the fourth-largest and the southernmost of the five Great Lakes in North America.
- It is also the warmest, shallowest, and smallest of the Great Lakes by volume.
- However, it is the most productive of the region’s lakes.
- It was named after the Erie Indians, who once lived on its shores.
- It forms the boundary between Canada (Ontario) to the north and the United States to the west, south, and east.
- It is located just below Lake Huron and bordered to the east by Lake Ontario and northwest by Lake Michigan.
- It has a surface area of 25,874 sq.km. Globally, Lake Erie is the 11th largest lake by both surface area and volume.
- The lake’s principal tributary rivers are the Detroit (carrying the discharge of Lake Huron), Huron, and Raisin rivers of Michigan, etc.
- Lake Erie drains into Lake Ontario via the Niagara River.
- Its western end contains several islands. The largest is Pelee Island.
- Lake Erie has four major ports—Detroit, Michigan; Cleveland, Ohio; Toledo, Ohio; and Buffalo, New York.
- It is an important link in the Saint Lawrence Seaway. The seaway connects the Great Lakes with the Atlantic Ocean.
- Biodiversity:
- Lake Erie hosts numerous species, including over 10,000 Lake Erie water snakes.
- There are also millions of mayflies and several bird species, including common red-breasted mergansers, grebes, loons, ring-billed gulls, diving ducks, and herring gulls.
- Lake Erie has the most abundant fish species of all the Great Lakes due to plenty of plankton and mild temperature, accounting for more than half of the Great Lakes’ fish population.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
A 1,256-MW nuclear reactor on the southern shore of Lake Erie in Ohio has unintentionally become a wildlife refuge, with its 1,100-acre buffer zone providing habitat and nesting grounds for threatened spotted turtles.
About Lake Erie:
- It is the fourth-largest and the southernmost of the five Great Lakes in North America.
- It is also the warmest, shallowest, and smallest of the Great Lakes by volume.
- However, it is the most productive of the region’s lakes.
- It was named after the Erie Indians, who once lived on its shores.
- It forms the boundary between Canada (Ontario) to the north and the United States to the west, south, and east.
- It is located just below Lake Huron and bordered to the east by Lake Ontario and northwest by Lake Michigan.
- It has a surface area of 25,874 sq.km. Globally, Lake Erie is the 11th largest lake by both surface area and volume.
- The lake’s principal tributary rivers are the Detroit (carrying the discharge of Lake Huron), Huron, and Raisin rivers of Michigan, etc.
- Lake Erie drains into Lake Ontario via the Niagara River.
- Its western end contains several islands. The largest is Pelee Island.
- Lake Erie has four major ports—Detroit, Michigan; Cleveland, Ohio; Toledo, Ohio; and Buffalo, New York.
- It is an important link in the Saint Lawrence Seaway. The seaway connects the Great Lakes with the Atlantic Ocean.
- Biodiversity:
- Lake Erie hosts numerous species, including over 10,000 Lake Erie water snakes.
- There are also millions of mayflies and several bird species, including common red-breasted mergansers, grebes, loons, ring-billed gulls, diving ducks, and herring gulls.
- Lake Erie has the most abundant fish species of all the Great Lakes due to plenty of plankton and mild temperature, accounting for more than half of the Great Lakes’ fish population.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Polysilicon, consider the following statements:
- It is composed of multiple smaller silicon crystals fused together in a haphazard manner.
- It is primarily used in the manufacture of solar cells.
- Australia is the dominant nation for polysilicon production.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
The government is working to add 30 gigawatts (GW) of polysilicon manufacturing capacity by 2030 and is working on a subsidy scheme.
About Polysilicon:
- Polysilicon, also known as polycrystalline silicon or simply poly-Si, is composed of multiple tiny crystals or grains of silicon.
- It is composed of multiple smaller silicon crystals fused together in a haphazard manner.
- Polysilicon is highly pure and generates almost as much energy as pure mono-crystalline silicon.
- Because of this, polysilicon is crucial to the solar industry as it plays a key part when manufacturing solar cells that are used in solar panels.
- To produce solar modules, polysilicon is melted at high temperatures to form ingots, which are then sliced into wafers and processed into solar cells and solar modules.
- It is also used in the semiconductor industry to manufacture integrated circuits and other electronic components.
- It is produced by purifying metallurgical-grade silicon into a high-purity form.
- There are two main methods to produce high-quality polysilicon that can be used for solar cell manufacturing: the Siemens process and fluidized bed reactor (FBR) technology. Â
- Global production is highly concentrated. China is the dominant global producer of polysilicon, accounting for over 80% of total world production.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
The government is working to add 30 gigawatts (GW) of polysilicon manufacturing capacity by 2030 and is working on a subsidy scheme.
About Polysilicon:
- Polysilicon, also known as polycrystalline silicon or simply poly-Si, is composed of multiple tiny crystals or grains of silicon.
- It is composed of multiple smaller silicon crystals fused together in a haphazard manner.
- Polysilicon is highly pure and generates almost as much energy as pure mono-crystalline silicon.
- Because of this, polysilicon is crucial to the solar industry as it plays a key part when manufacturing solar cells that are used in solar panels.
- To produce solar modules, polysilicon is melted at high temperatures to form ingots, which are then sliced into wafers and processed into solar cells and solar modules.
- It is also used in the semiconductor industry to manufacture integrated circuits and other electronic components.
- It is produced by purifying metallurgical-grade silicon into a high-purity form.
- There are two main methods to produce high-quality polysilicon that can be used for solar cell manufacturing: the Siemens process and fluidized bed reactor (FBR) technology. Â
- Global production is highly concentrated. China is the dominant global producer of polysilicon, accounting for over 80% of total world production.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Online Bond Platform Provider (OBPP), recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
- It is a SEBI-registered platform that facilitates the buying and selling of bonds.
- It provides investors with comprehensive information about bonds such as their credit ratings, interest rates, maturities, and offer documents.
- The minimum investment value is ₹10 lakh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
The SEBI recently proposed an advertisement code for Online Bond Platform Provider (OBPP), to boost reach and on account of need for investor awareness about this asset class.
About Online Bond Platform Provider (OBPP):
- An OBPP is a SEBI-registered platform that facilitates the buying and selling of bonds.
- It acts as a digital bridge between bond issuers (like corporations or the government) and retail investors.
- OBPPs leverage technology to simplify the bond investment process, making it more accessible and efficient for non-institutional investors.
- They create an online ecosystem and provide comprehensive information about bonds.
- Investors can browse through a diverse array of bonds, review their features, their credit ratings, interest rates, maturities, and offer documents.
- They can compare different bonds and assess their risk-return profiles, empowering them to make well-informed investment choices.
- Benefits:
- Ticket Sizes are Low: The minimum investment value is just 10,000.
- Compliance is Built-in: Platforms must be registered stockbrokers and adhere to strict SEBI (Issue and Listing of Non-Convertible Securities) Regulations.
- Discovery is Instant: You can filter bonds by credit rating, yield, and maturity in seconds.
- How Does an OBPP Work?
- An OBPP simplifies bond investing by bringing discovery, execution, and settlement together in a regulated digital journey.
- While the interface may feel seamless to the investor, the process follows a structured market mechanism.
- In practice, an investor first opens a Demat account and completes KYC
- Once onboarded, they can browse listed bonds, compare key details such as yield, maturity, rating, and issuer profile, and then place an order.
- For listed debt securities, orders are routed through the Request for Quote (RFQ) platform of a recognised stock exchange.
- After execution, settlement takes place through the recognised clearing corporation, and the bonds are credited to the investor’s Demat account.
- This makes the investment process more transparent, trackable, and aligned with the formal securities market ecosystem.
Â
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/200469/OPS/GHJGE761C.1+GMAGE9BO4.1.html
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
The SEBI recently proposed an advertisement code for Online Bond Platform Provider (OBPP), to boost reach and on account of need for investor awareness about this asset class.
About Online Bond Platform Provider (OBPP):
- An OBPP is a SEBI-registered platform that facilitates the buying and selling of bonds.
- It acts as a digital bridge between bond issuers (like corporations or the government) and retail investors.
- OBPPs leverage technology to simplify the bond investment process, making it more accessible and efficient for non-institutional investors.
- They create an online ecosystem and provide comprehensive information about bonds.
- Investors can browse through a diverse array of bonds, review their features, their credit ratings, interest rates, maturities, and offer documents.
- They can compare different bonds and assess their risk-return profiles, empowering them to make well-informed investment choices.
- Benefits:
- Ticket Sizes are Low: The minimum investment value is just 10,000.
- Compliance is Built-in: Platforms must be registered stockbrokers and adhere to strict SEBI (Issue and Listing of Non-Convertible Securities) Regulations.
- Discovery is Instant: You can filter bonds by credit rating, yield, and maturity in seconds.
- How Does an OBPP Work?
- An OBPP simplifies bond investing by bringing discovery, execution, and settlement together in a regulated digital journey.
- While the interface may feel seamless to the investor, the process follows a structured market mechanism.
- In practice, an investor first opens a Demat account and completes KYC
- Once onboarded, they can browse listed bonds, compare key details such as yield, maturity, rating, and issuer profile, and then place an order.
- For listed debt securities, orders are routed through the Request for Quote (RFQ) platform of a recognised stock exchange.
- After execution, settlement takes place through the recognised clearing corporation, and the bonds are credited to the investor’s Demat account.
- This makes the investment process more transparent, trackable, and aligned with the formal securities market ecosystem.
Â
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/200469/OPS/GHJGE761C.1+GMAGE9BO4.1.html
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Animal Disease Control Programme:
- It is a Central Sector Scheme.
- It is aimed at controlling and eradicating only Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) through nationwide vaccination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation: Â
The National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP) has emerged as one of India’s most comprehensive and data-driven livestock health interventions.
About National Animal Disease Control Programme:
- It is one of India’s largest livestock health initiatives launched in 2019.
- It is a Central Sector Scheme where 100% of funds are provided by the Central Government to the States/UTs.
- It is aimed at controlling and eradicating Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis through nationwide vaccination and surveillance.
- The programme targets 100 % vaccination of all livestock against FMD twice a year and one time vaccination against Brucellosis in 4-8 months old female bovine calves in their lifetime.
- Nodal Ministry: Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (AH&D), Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying.Â
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseDetail.aspx?PRID=2302242®=48&lang=1
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation: Â
The National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP) has emerged as one of India’s most comprehensive and data-driven livestock health interventions.
About National Animal Disease Control Programme:
- It is one of India’s largest livestock health initiatives launched in 2019.
- It is a Central Sector Scheme where 100% of funds are provided by the Central Government to the States/UTs.
- It is aimed at controlling and eradicating Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis through nationwide vaccination and surveillance.
- The programme targets 100 % vaccination of all livestock against FMD twice a year and one time vaccination against Brucellosis in 4-8 months old female bovine calves in their lifetime.
- Nodal Ministry: Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (AH&D), Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying.Â
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseDetail.aspx?PRID=2302242®=48&lang=1
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan:
- It is aimed at strengthening the implementation of Minimum Support Price (MSP) and ensuring remunerative prices for farmers.
- Under this price stabilization fund was set up to stabilize the prices of key agri-horticultural products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan has emerged as a strong and structured mechanism to support farmers through assured procurement, price stabilization, and effective market interventions.
About Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan:
- It was launched in September 2018.
- It is aimed at strengthening the implementation of Minimum Support Price (MSP) and ensuring remunerative prices for farmers.
- Components of Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan
- Price Support Scheme (PSS)
- It ensures procurement of crop at MSP when market prices fall below MSP during harvest.
- It mainly covers pulses, oilseeds, and copra.
- Procurement is carried out through agencies such as the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) and the National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India Limited (NCCF) at the request of state governments.
- Only registered farmers with valid land records are eligible, which ensures direct benefit without intermediaries.
- Price Stabilization Fund (PSF)
- It protects consumers from price volatility by maintaining buffer stocks of essential commodities like pulses, onions, and potatoes.
- It was set up to stabilize the prices of key agri-horticultural products.
- Commodities are procured during harvest and released in lean seasons to control price spikes and ensure affordability.
- Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)
- Under PDPS, farmers’ produce is not physically procured.
- Instead, they are paid the price difference between the MSP and the actual market price in the notified market, up to 15% of the MSP value, directly into their bank accounts.
- It is mainly used for oilseeds and reduces the need for large procurement infrastructure.
- Market Intervention Scheme (MIS)
- It is designed to procure a range of perishable agricultural and horticultural commodities.
- It targets products such as tomatoes, onions, and potatoes for which a Minimum Support Price does not apply.
- The scheme activates when market prices drop by at least 10% over the previous normal season’s rates.
- It operates through cost-sharing between the Centre and State governments for the operations undertaken by Central Nodal Agencies like NAFED and NCCF.
- Price Support Scheme (PSS)
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=159674&ModuleId=3®=48&lang=2
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan has emerged as a strong and structured mechanism to support farmers through assured procurement, price stabilization, and effective market interventions.
About Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan:
- It was launched in September 2018.
- It is aimed at strengthening the implementation of Minimum Support Price (MSP) and ensuring remunerative prices for farmers.
- Components of Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan
- Price Support Scheme (PSS)
- It ensures procurement of crop at MSP when market prices fall below MSP during harvest.
- It mainly covers pulses, oilseeds, and copra.
- Procurement is carried out through agencies such as the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) and the National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India Limited (NCCF) at the request of state governments.
- Only registered farmers with valid land records are eligible, which ensures direct benefit without intermediaries.
- Price Stabilization Fund (PSF)
- It protects consumers from price volatility by maintaining buffer stocks of essential commodities like pulses, onions, and potatoes.
- It was set up to stabilize the prices of key agri-horticultural products.
- Commodities are procured during harvest and released in lean seasons to control price spikes and ensure affordability.
- Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)
- Under PDPS, farmers’ produce is not physically procured.
- Instead, they are paid the price difference between the MSP and the actual market price in the notified market, up to 15% of the MSP value, directly into their bank accounts.
- It is mainly used for oilseeds and reduces the need for large procurement infrastructure.
- Market Intervention Scheme (MIS)
- It is designed to procure a range of perishable agricultural and horticultural commodities.
- It targets products such as tomatoes, onions, and potatoes for which a Minimum Support Price does not apply.
- The scheme activates when market prices drop by at least 10% over the previous normal season’s rates.
- It operates through cost-sharing between the Centre and State governments for the operations undertaken by Central Nodal Agencies like NAFED and NCCF.
- Price Support Scheme (PSS)
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=159674&ModuleId=3®=48&lang=2
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Financial Reporting Authority:
- It was established under the Companies Act, 2013.Â
- Its role is to oversee and enforce compliance with accounting and auditing standards to improve the credibility of financial reporting in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) completed its sixth outreach programme at Ahmedabad recently, in a series of outreach programmes that commenced in 2025.
About National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):
- It is an independent regulatory body established by the Government of India under Section 132(1) of the Companies Act, 2013.Â
- Its primary role is to oversee and enforce compliance with accounting and auditing standards to improve the credibility, quality, and transparency of financial reporting in India.
- It aims to protect the interests of investors, stakeholders, and the public by ensuring high standards in the financial reporting ecosystem.
- Head Office: New Delhi.
- Functions:
- Recommendation: Recommend accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for approval by the Central Government;
- Monitor: Monitor and enforce compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards;
- Perform such other functions and duties as may be necessary or incidental to the aforesaid functions and duties.
- Composition
- The Companies Act requires the NFRA to have a chairperson who will be appointed by the Central Government and a maximum of 15 members.
- The appointment of such chairperson and members is subject to the following qualifications:
- They should have an expertise in accountancy, auditing, finance, or law.
- They are required to make a declaration to the Central Government that there is no conflict of interest or lack of independence in their appointment.
- All the members, including the chairperson, who are in full-time employment, should not be associated with any audit firm (including related consultancy firms) during their term of office and 2 years after their term.
- Powers
- It has the power to investigate, either suo moto or on a reference made to it by the Central Government, into the matters of professional or other misconduct committed by any member or firm of chartered accountants registered under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.
- It has the same powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, while trying a suit.
- Where professional or other misconduct is proved, it shall have the power to impose punishment.
- Any person who is not satisfied with the order of the NFRA can then make an appeal to the Appellate Authority.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2302084®=3&lang=1
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) completed its sixth outreach programme at Ahmedabad recently, in a series of outreach programmes that commenced in 2025.
About National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):
- It is an independent regulatory body established by the Government of India under Section 132(1) of the Companies Act, 2013.Â
- Its primary role is to oversee and enforce compliance with accounting and auditing standards to improve the credibility, quality, and transparency of financial reporting in India.
- It aims to protect the interests of investors, stakeholders, and the public by ensuring high standards in the financial reporting ecosystem.
- Head Office: New Delhi.
- Functions:
- Recommendation: Recommend accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for approval by the Central Government;
- Monitor: Monitor and enforce compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards;
- Perform such other functions and duties as may be necessary or incidental to the aforesaid functions and duties.
- Composition
- The Companies Act requires the NFRA to have a chairperson who will be appointed by the Central Government and a maximum of 15 members.
- The appointment of such chairperson and members is subject to the following qualifications:
- They should have an expertise in accountancy, auditing, finance, or law.
- They are required to make a declaration to the Central Government that there is no conflict of interest or lack of independence in their appointment.
- All the members, including the chairperson, who are in full-time employment, should not be associated with any audit firm (including related consultancy firms) during their term of office and 2 years after their term.
- Powers
- It has the power to investigate, either suo moto or on a reference made to it by the Central Government, into the matters of professional or other misconduct committed by any member or firm of chartered accountants registered under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.
- It has the same powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, while trying a suit.
- Where professional or other misconduct is proved, it shall have the power to impose punishment.
- Any person who is not satisfied with the order of the NFRA can then make an appeal to the Appellate Authority.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2302084®=3&lang=1
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Brazil, consider the following statements:
- It shares its maritime border with the Atlantic Ocean.
- It is dissected by only Equator and not the Tropic of Capricorn.
- It is bounded by the Bolivia and Peru in West.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, India and Brazil signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to strengthen bilateral cooperation in telecommunications and Information and Communication Technologies (ICTs).
About Brazil:
- Location: It is located in the central-eastern part of South America.
- Bordering Countries: Argentina and Paraguay (Southwest), Bolivia and Peru (West), Colombia (Northwest), and Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname and French Guiana (North).
- Bordering Water body: It borders the Atlantic Ocean.
- It occupies almost half of the continent’s landmass and is dissected by both the Equator and the Tropic of Capricorn.
- Capital City: Brasilia.
- Geographical Features of Brazil:
- Physiographic zones: It includes the Brazilian Highlands, the Amazon Rainforest, and the Pantanal Wetlands.
- Major Rivers: Amazon, São Francisco River and Iguacu River.
- Amazon Basin: It is the world’s largest river basin, spans across Brazil, Peru, Colombia, Ecuador, Venezuela, Bolivia, Guyana, and Suriname.
- Highest Peak: Pico da Neblina (2,999 m) is Brazil’s tallest mountain.
- Natural Resources: Â It mainly consists of iron ore, tin, copper, pyrochlore and bauxite.Â
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/india-brazil-sign-mou-to-strengthen-cooperation-in-telecommunications-and-ict/
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, India and Brazil signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to strengthen bilateral cooperation in telecommunications and Information and Communication Technologies (ICTs).
About Brazil:
- Location: It is located in the central-eastern part of South America.
- Bordering Countries: Argentina and Paraguay (Southwest), Bolivia and Peru (West), Colombia (Northwest), and Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname and French Guiana (North).
- Bordering Water body: It borders the Atlantic Ocean.
- It occupies almost half of the continent’s landmass and is dissected by both the Equator and the Tropic of Capricorn.
- Capital City: Brasilia.
- Geographical Features of Brazil:
- Physiographic zones: It includes the Brazilian Highlands, the Amazon Rainforest, and the Pantanal Wetlands.
- Major Rivers: Amazon, São Francisco River and Iguacu River.
- Amazon Basin: It is the world’s largest river basin, spans across Brazil, Peru, Colombia, Ecuador, Venezuela, Bolivia, Guyana, and Suriname.
- Highest Peak: Pico da Neblina (2,999 m) is Brazil’s tallest mountain.
- Natural Resources: Â It mainly consists of iron ore, tin, copper, pyrochlore and bauxite.Â
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/india-brazil-sign-mou-to-strengthen-cooperation-in-telecommunications-and-ict/
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsErvebo vaccine, recently in news, is used for the treatment of:
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
Recently, the World Health Organisation and its partners said that Congo will receive 70,000 doses of the Ervebo vaccine.
About Ervebo vaccine:
- It is licensed for use against the Ebola virus disease.
- It is a replication-competent, live, attenuated recombinant vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV) vaccine.
- Working
- The vaccine only contains one protein from the Zaire Ebola virus and cannot cause Ebola virus disease.
- When a person receives the vaccine, it triggers an immune response against this viral protein.Â
- Administration: It is indicated for active immunization of individuals 1 year of age or older to protect against Ebola Virus Disease.Â
- It is manufactured by Merck.
- It does not provide protection against other species of orthoebolaviruses or orthomarburgviruses.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/congo-ebola-outbreak-who-sends-70000-ervebo-vaccine-doses-ptag-2975884-2026-08-20
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
Recently, the World Health Organisation and its partners said that Congo will receive 70,000 doses of the Ervebo vaccine.
About Ervebo vaccine:
- It is licensed for use against the Ebola virus disease.
- It is a replication-competent, live, attenuated recombinant vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV) vaccine.
- Working
- The vaccine only contains one protein from the Zaire Ebola virus and cannot cause Ebola virus disease.
- When a person receives the vaccine, it triggers an immune response against this viral protein.Â
- Administration: It is indicated for active immunization of individuals 1 year of age or older to protect against Ebola Virus Disease.Â
- It is manufactured by Merck.
- It does not provide protection against other species of orthoebolaviruses or orthomarburgviruses.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/congo-ebola-outbreak-who-sends-70000-ervebo-vaccine-doses-ptag-2975884-2026-08-20
Last updated on August, 2026
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