The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions.
UPSC Daily Quiz 2 December 2025
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The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Masala Bonds, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
- They are rupee-denominated bonds issued outside India.
- Only government entities can issue these bonds.
- The investor bears the exchange-rate (currency) risk in Masala Bonds.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Enforcement Directorate’s (ED) recent decision to issue notices to the Kerala Chief Minister in the KIIFB masala bond investigation marks a significant escalation in a long-running conflict between the LDF government and central agencies over the state’s financing model.
About Masala Bonds:
They are rupee-denominated bonds issued outside India by Indian entities.
The International Finance Corporation (IFC), an arm of the World Bank, issued the first masala bonds in October 2013 as part of its $2 billion dollar offshore rupee programme.
They are debt instruments which help to raise money in local currency from foreign investors.
That means the currency risk—if exchange rates change—is on the investor, not the issuer. This helps Indian companies manage their risks better.
To offset the risk of exchange rate fluctuations, bonds typically offer attractive interest rates that are frequently greater than those offered in the investors’ home countries.
Both the government and private entities can issue these bonds.
Who Can Invest?
Investors outside India who would like to invest in assets in India can subscribe to these bonds.
Any resident of that country can subscribe to these bonds which are members of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF).
That includes individuals, institutions, and even financial organisations from countries that follow international standards for fair and secure investing, like those under IOSCO (International Organisation of Securities Commissions).
It also covers multilateral and regional financial institutions of which India is a member.
Maturity Period:
It depends on the size of the bond.
For bonds up to USD 50 million, the maturity is usually 3 years.
For larger amounts, it can go up to 5 years, giving investors more flexibility based on their goals.
What Can The Money Be Used For?
The funds raised through Masala bonds are generally earmarked for productive and regulated purposes.
The proceeds can fund affordable housing, infrastructure, refinance rupee loans, or meet corporate working capital requirements.
Activities like buying land, investing in the stock market, or funding real estate projects are off-limits—unless they’ve received specific government approvals.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.outlookindia.com/national/ed-notice-to-kerala-cm-pinarayi-vijayan-sparks-kiifb-masala-bond-controversy-ahead-of-polls
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Enforcement Directorate’s (ED) recent decision to issue notices to the Kerala Chief Minister in the KIIFB masala bond investigation marks a significant escalation in a long-running conflict between the LDF government and central agencies over the state’s financing model.
About Masala Bonds:
They are rupee-denominated bonds issued outside India by Indian entities.
The International Finance Corporation (IFC), an arm of the World Bank, issued the first masala bonds in October 2013 as part of its $2 billion dollar offshore rupee programme.
They are debt instruments which help to raise money in local currency from foreign investors.
That means the currency risk—if exchange rates change—is on the investor, not the issuer. This helps Indian companies manage their risks better.
To offset the risk of exchange rate fluctuations, bonds typically offer attractive interest rates that are frequently greater than those offered in the investors’ home countries.
Both the government and private entities can issue these bonds.
Who Can Invest?
Investors outside India who would like to invest in assets in India can subscribe to these bonds.
Any resident of that country can subscribe to these bonds which are members of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF).
That includes individuals, institutions, and even financial organisations from countries that follow international standards for fair and secure investing, like those under IOSCO (International Organisation of Securities Commissions).
It also covers multilateral and regional financial institutions of which India is a member.
Maturity Period:
It depends on the size of the bond.
For bonds up to USD 50 million, the maturity is usually 3 years.
For larger amounts, it can go up to 5 years, giving investors more flexibility based on their goals.
What Can The Money Be Used For?
The funds raised through Masala bonds are generally earmarked for productive and regulated purposes.
The proceeds can fund affordable housing, infrastructure, refinance rupee loans, or meet corporate working capital requirements.
Activities like buying land, investing in the stock market, or funding real estate projects are off-limits—unless they’ve received specific government approvals.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.outlookindia.com/national/ed-notice-to-kerala-cm-pinarayi-vijayan-sparks-kiifb-masala-bond-controversy-ahead-of-polls
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC):
- It is a legally binding international treaty that bans the use of biological and toxin weapons.
- India and Pakistan are not signatories to the BWC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
The External Affairs Minister recently called for urgent reforms to strengthen global biosecurity and modernise the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC), warning that biological threats are becoming harder to manage in a rapidly evolving scientific landscape.
About Biological Weapons Convention (BWC):
It is a legally binding international treaty that bans the use of biological and toxin weapons and prohibits all development, production, acquisition, stockpiling, or transfer of such weapons.
The treaty also bans any equipment or means of delivery that is designed to use biological agents or toxins for hostile purposes or armed conflict.
It requires signatories to destroy biological weapons, agents, and production facilities within nine months of the treaty’s entry into force.
It opened for signature on 10 April 1972 and entered into force on 26 March 1975.
It was the first multilateral treaty categorically banning a class of weapon.
Membership:
It currently has 187 states-parties, including Palestine, and four signatories (Egypt, Haiti, Somalia, and Syria).
Ten states have neither signed nor ratified the BWC (Chad, Comoros, Djibouti, Eritrea, Israel, Kiribati, Micronesia, Namibia, South Sudan, and Tuvalu).
India signed and ratified the BWC in 1974.
The convention stipulates that states shall cooperate bilaterally or multilaterally to solve compliance issues.
States may also submit complaints to the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) should they believe another state is violating the treaty.
However, there is no implementation body of the BWC, allowing for blatant violations.
There is a review conference every five years to review the convention’s implementation, and establish confidence-building measures.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
The External Affairs Minister recently called for urgent reforms to strengthen global biosecurity and modernise the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC), warning that biological threats are becoming harder to manage in a rapidly evolving scientific landscape.
About Biological Weapons Convention (BWC):
It is a legally binding international treaty that bans the use of biological and toxin weapons and prohibits all development, production, acquisition, stockpiling, or transfer of such weapons.
The treaty also bans any equipment or means of delivery that is designed to use biological agents or toxins for hostile purposes or armed conflict.
It requires signatories to destroy biological weapons, agents, and production facilities within nine months of the treaty’s entry into force.
It opened for signature on 10 April 1972 and entered into force on 26 March 1975.
It was the first multilateral treaty categorically banning a class of weapon.
Membership:
It currently has 187 states-parties, including Palestine, and four signatories (Egypt, Haiti, Somalia, and Syria).
Ten states have neither signed nor ratified the BWC (Chad, Comoros, Djibouti, Eritrea, Israel, Kiribati, Micronesia, Namibia, South Sudan, and Tuvalu).
India signed and ratified the BWC in 1974.
The convention stipulates that states shall cooperate bilaterally or multilaterally to solve compliance issues.
States may also submit complaints to the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) should they believe another state is violating the treaty.
However, there is no implementation body of the BWC, allowing for blatant violations.
There is a review conference every five years to review the convention’s implementation, and establish confidence-building measures.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bioremediation:
- It is the use of living organisms to degrade environmental contaminants into less toxic forms.
- It is not effective against toxic metals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Bioremediation offers a cheaper, scalable, and sustainable alternative, especially in a country like India where vast stretches of land and water are affected but resources for remediation are limited.
About Bioremediation:
Bioremediation literally means “restoring life through biology.”
It is the use of living organisms, primarily microorganisms, to degrade environmental contaminants into less toxic forms.
It is used to clean up contaminated soil, air, and water.
It harnesses microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, algae, and plants to sequester or transform toxic substances such as oil, pesticides, plastics, or heavy metals.
These organisms metabolise these pollutants as food, breaking them down into harmless by-products such as water, carbon dioxide, or organic acids.
In some cases, they can convert toxic metals into less dangerous forms that no longer leach into the soil or groundwater.
Two Broad Types of Bioremediation:
In situ bioremediation, where treatment happens directly at the contaminated site, such as when oil-eating bacteria is sprayed on an ocean spill;
Ex situ bioremediation, where contaminated soil or water is removed, treated in a controlled facility, and returned once cleaned.
For bioremediation to be effective, the right temperature, nutrients, and food also must be present.
Proper conditions allow the right microbes to grow and multiply—and eat more contaminants.
Advantages:
It cleans up the environment naturally without the use of toxic chemicals. So, it is an environmentally friendly method.
Contaminants are converted into water and harmless gases.
It is cost-effective, as extensive equipment and labor are not needed.
It is a permanent solution, as the degraded material cannot revert back to the previous one.
It is a recommended method for removing oil stains.
Disadvantages:
It takes a large area and time from months to years.
It is limited to the compounds which are degradable.
It is not able to remove all kinds of impurities from the contaminated site. Like, some kind of inorganic contaminants cannot be treated with this bioremediation method.
Some heavy metals cannot be completely broken down, resulting in toxic by-products.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/159372/OPS/G06F8BF64.1+GBMF8DHGF.1.html
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
Bioremediation offers a cheaper, scalable, and sustainable alternative, especially in a country like India where vast stretches of land and water are affected but resources for remediation are limited.
About Bioremediation:
Bioremediation literally means “restoring life through biology.”
It is the use of living organisms, primarily microorganisms, to degrade environmental contaminants into less toxic forms.
It is used to clean up contaminated soil, air, and water.
It harnesses microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, algae, and plants to sequester or transform toxic substances such as oil, pesticides, plastics, or heavy metals.
These organisms metabolise these pollutants as food, breaking them down into harmless by-products such as water, carbon dioxide, or organic acids.
In some cases, they can convert toxic metals into less dangerous forms that no longer leach into the soil or groundwater.
Two Broad Types of Bioremediation:
In situ bioremediation, where treatment happens directly at the contaminated site, such as when oil-eating bacteria is sprayed on an ocean spill;
Ex situ bioremediation, where contaminated soil or water is removed, treated in a controlled facility, and returned once cleaned.
For bioremediation to be effective, the right temperature, nutrients, and food also must be present.
Proper conditions allow the right microbes to grow and multiply—and eat more contaminants.
Advantages:
It cleans up the environment naturally without the use of toxic chemicals. So, it is an environmentally friendly method.
Contaminants are converted into water and harmless gases.
It is cost-effective, as extensive equipment and labor are not needed.
It is a permanent solution, as the degraded material cannot revert back to the previous one.
It is a recommended method for removing oil stains.
Disadvantages:
It takes a large area and time from months to years.
It is limited to the compounds which are degradable.
It is not able to remove all kinds of impurities from the contaminated site. Like, some kind of inorganic contaminants cannot be treated with this bioremediation method.
Some heavy metals cannot be completely broken down, resulting in toxic by-products.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/159372/OPS/G06F8BF64.1+GBMF8DHGF.1.html
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sanchar Saathi:
- It is a security and awareness platform.
- It was developed by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has made it mandatory for all newly manufactured or imported mobile phones in India to come with the Sanchar Saathi app pre-installed.
About Sanchar Saathi:
It is a security and awareness platform developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
It is available both as an app and a web portal.
Purpose: To help mobile users manage their digital identity, report suspicious activity, and safeguard their devices.
The platform also provides educational material on telecom safety and cyber risks, making it a combined service-and-awareness system.
Features:
‘Chakshu’ Feature: It lets users report suspicious calls, SMS, and WhatsApp messages, such as fake KYC alerts, impersonation scams, or phishing links. It helps authorities spot fraud patterns.
Report Spam and Unwanted Commercial Calls: Users can report spam calls and messages that break TRAI rules. Complaints made within seven days can lead to action against the sender.
Report Malicious Links and Apps: Allows reporting of phishing links, unsafe APKs, and fraudulent websites.
Checking Mobile Connections Linked To Your Identity: Shows how many mobile numbers are registered using your identity. Helps identify SIM cards taken without your knowledge.
Blocking Lost or Stolen Phones: Allows users to block the IMEI of a lost or stolen device so it can’t be used. Phones can be unblocked if recovered.
Verifying The Authenticity Of A Device: Allows users to check if a phone is genuine by validating its IMEI. It is useful when buying second-hand phones.
Reporting International Calls That Appear As Indian Numbers: Some scammers use illegal telecom setups to make international calls appear as regular +91 calls. Sanchar Saathi enables users to report such cases.
Finding Your Local Internet Service Provider: The app also includes a feature that lets users check which wired internet service providers are available in their area by entering a PIN code, address, or provider name.
Verifying Trusted Contacts and Helpline Numbers: Provides a directory to confirm genuine customer-care numbers, emails, and websites of banks and other major institutions.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/life/technology-sanchar-saathi-app-explained-heres-why-the-government-wants-it-pre-installed-on-every-smartphone-4062495/
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has made it mandatory for all newly manufactured or imported mobile phones in India to come with the Sanchar Saathi app pre-installed.
About Sanchar Saathi:
It is a security and awareness platform developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
It is available both as an app and a web portal.
Purpose: To help mobile users manage their digital identity, report suspicious activity, and safeguard their devices.
The platform also provides educational material on telecom safety and cyber risks, making it a combined service-and-awareness system.
Features:
‘Chakshu’ Feature: It lets users report suspicious calls, SMS, and WhatsApp messages, such as fake KYC alerts, impersonation scams, or phishing links. It helps authorities spot fraud patterns.
Report Spam and Unwanted Commercial Calls: Users can report spam calls and messages that break TRAI rules. Complaints made within seven days can lead to action against the sender.
Report Malicious Links and Apps: Allows reporting of phishing links, unsafe APKs, and fraudulent websites.
Checking Mobile Connections Linked To Your Identity: Shows how many mobile numbers are registered using your identity. Helps identify SIM cards taken without your knowledge.
Blocking Lost or Stolen Phones: Allows users to block the IMEI of a lost or stolen device so it can’t be used. Phones can be unblocked if recovered.
Verifying The Authenticity Of A Device: Allows users to check if a phone is genuine by validating its IMEI. It is useful when buying second-hand phones.
Reporting International Calls That Appear As Indian Numbers: Some scammers use illegal telecom setups to make international calls appear as regular +91 calls. Sanchar Saathi enables users to report such cases.
Finding Your Local Internet Service Provider: The app also includes a feature that lets users check which wired internet service providers are available in their area by entering a PIN code, address, or provider name.
Verifying Trusted Contacts and Helpline Numbers: Provides a directory to confirm genuine customer-care numbers, emails, and websites of banks and other major institutions.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/life/technology-sanchar-saathi-app-explained-heres-why-the-government-wants-it-pre-installed-on-every-smartphone-4062495/
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Heron Mk II, recently seen in the news:
- It is a next-generation anti-submarine warfare helicopter.
- It was developed by the United States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
To enhance their unmanned capabilities in the wake of Operation Sindoor, the Indian armed forces have signed up for more satellite-linked Heron Mk II UAVs under emergency procurement, sources in the Israeli defence industry said recently.
About Heron Mk II:
It is a medium-altitude long-endurance (MALE) unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV).
It was developed by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI).
Features:
It has a length of 8.5 m, a wingspan of 16.6 m, and a payload capacity of 490 kg.
It has a maximum takeoff weight of 1,430 kg.
It offers an endurance of 45 hours and a top speed of 150 knots.
It can reach altitudes up to 35,000 ft and has an operating range of more than 1,000 km.
It can carry long-range radars and observation sensors, such as electro-optical/infra-red (EO/IR) systems for detection and tracking of targets.
The electronic intelligence (ELINT) and communications intelligence (COMINT) systems will be installed on board to detect, analyse, geolocate, and gather electronic and communication radio signals for actionable intelligence at long-range stand-off distances.
It is able to gather intelligence from tens of kilometers away without crossing borders.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indian-armed-forces-to-procure-more-satellite-linked-heron-mk-ii-uavs-under-emergency-procurement/article70346863.ece
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
To enhance their unmanned capabilities in the wake of Operation Sindoor, the Indian armed forces have signed up for more satellite-linked Heron Mk II UAVs under emergency procurement, sources in the Israeli defence industry said recently.
About Heron Mk II:
It is a medium-altitude long-endurance (MALE) unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV).
It was developed by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI).
Features:
It has a length of 8.5 m, a wingspan of 16.6 m, and a payload capacity of 490 kg.
It has a maximum takeoff weight of 1,430 kg.
It offers an endurance of 45 hours and a top speed of 150 knots.
It can reach altitudes up to 35,000 ft and has an operating range of more than 1,000 km.
It can carry long-range radars and observation sensors, such as electro-optical/infra-red (EO/IR) systems for detection and tracking of targets.
The electronic intelligence (ELINT) and communications intelligence (COMINT) systems will be installed on board to detect, analyse, geolocate, and gather electronic and communication radio signals for actionable intelligence at long-range stand-off distances.
It is able to gather intelligence from tens of kilometers away without crossing borders.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indian-armed-forces-to-procure-more-satellite-linked-heron-mk-ii-uavs-under-emergency-procurement/article70346863.ece
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsExercise EKUVERIN, is conducted between India and:
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
The 14th edition of the exercise EKUVERIN is set to take place in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
- Ekuverin meaning ‘Friends’ in Dhivehi language started in the year 2009.
- It is one of the three major joint exercises between India and the Maldives.
- It is a bilateral military annual exercise conducted alternatively in India and Maldives.
- The Exercise aims to enhance interoperability while carrying out counterinsurgency and Counter Terrorism operations in semi-urban, jungle and coastal terrain.
- It further focus on integration of niche technology to enhance interoperability, the countries will share best practices, reflecting the shared commitment of India and the Maldives towards peace and security in the region.
- Other Exercises between India and Maldives: The two bilateral exercises are “Ekuverin” and “Ekatha” and trilateral- “Dosti”, which includes Sri Lanka.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/14th-edition-of-india-maldives-bilateral-exercise-ekuverin-to-take-place-tomorrow-in-kerala/
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
The 14th edition of the exercise EKUVERIN is set to take place in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
- Ekuverin meaning ‘Friends’ in Dhivehi language started in the year 2009.
- It is one of the three major joint exercises between India and the Maldives.
- It is a bilateral military annual exercise conducted alternatively in India and Maldives.
- The Exercise aims to enhance interoperability while carrying out counterinsurgency and Counter Terrorism operations in semi-urban, jungle and coastal terrain.
- It further focus on integration of niche technology to enhance interoperability, the countries will share best practices, reflecting the shared commitment of India and the Maldives towards peace and security in the region.
- Other Exercises between India and Maldives: The two bilateral exercises are “Ekuverin” and “Ekatha” and trilateral- “Dosti”, which includes Sri Lanka.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/14th-edition-of-india-maldives-bilateral-exercise-ekuverin-to-take-place-tomorrow-in-kerala/
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Guinea-Bissau:
- It is a landlocked country located in African continent.
- It borders Senegal to the north and Guina to its eastern and southern boundaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, the African country of Guinea-Bissau fell under military rule.
- It is one of the smallest countries in the African continent.
- Bordering Countries: It borders Senegal to the north and Guina to its eastern and southern boundaries.
- Maritime Boundary: To the west, the country has a coastline on the Atlantic Ocean.
- It includes the Bijagós (Bissagos) archipelagoand other islands that lie off the coast.
- Capital City: Bissau
- Geographical Features of Guinea-Bissau
- Terrain: Mostly low-lying coastal plain with a deeply indented estuarine coastline rising to savanna in east.
- Plateau: The Fouta Djallon Plateaudominates the southeastern part of the country.
- Climate: It has a generally tropical climate influenced by the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ).
- Its environment is largely made up of swamps and marshlands.
- Rivers: Corubal, Geba, and Cacheu ETC.
- Natural resources: Phosphates, bauxite, clay, granite, limestone,
- Economy: Fishing is a huge local industry of this country.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/another-coup-in-africa-guinea-bissau-falls/
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, the African country of Guinea-Bissau fell under military rule.
- It is one of the smallest countries in the African continent.
- Bordering Countries: It borders Senegal to the north and Guina to its eastern and southern boundaries.
- Maritime Boundary: To the west, the country has a coastline on the Atlantic Ocean.
- It includes the Bijagós (Bissagos) archipelagoand other islands that lie off the coast.
- Capital City: Bissau
- Geographical Features of Guinea-Bissau
- Terrain: Mostly low-lying coastal plain with a deeply indented estuarine coastline rising to savanna in east.
- Plateau: The Fouta Djallon Plateaudominates the southeastern part of the country.
- Climate: It has a generally tropical climate influenced by the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ).
- Its environment is largely made up of swamps and marshlands.
- Rivers: Corubal, Geba, and Cacheu ETC.
- Natural resources: Phosphates, bauxite, clay, granite, limestone,
- Economy: Fishing is a huge local industry of this country.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/another-coup-in-africa-guinea-bissau-falls/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Trade Enablement and Marketing Scheme:
- It is the sub scheme of the scheme ‘Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance’ (RAMP),
- It is support MSMEs to help them access different markets by integrating them with e-commerce platforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Minister of state for Micro,Small & Medium Enterprises informed the Rajya Sabha about the Trade Enablement and Marketing Scheme.
- It is the sub scheme of the scheme ‘Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance’ (RAMP), which is a Central Sector Scheme.
- The initiative will empower MSMEs with digital tools and guidance to effectively utilize the e-commerce marketplace.
- Objective: To support MSMEs to help them access different markets by integrating them with e-commerce platforms.
- Financial Outlay and Duration: The outlay is Rs. 277.35 Cr. for the duration of 3 years from 2024 to 2027.
- Eligibility Criteria: All the Udyam registered Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) under manufacturing and services sectors will be eligible for benefits under the Initiative.
- Targeted beneficiaries: It envisages benefiting 5 lakh Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) of which 50% are to be women owned
- It focus on;
- Connecting MSMEs with the ONDC Network.
- Provides access to digital storefronts, integrated payment systems, and logistics support.
- Reduce operational barriers and helps businesses tap into wider customer bases.
- It emphasizes formalizing operations and establishing digital transaction histories, which will enhance the credibility and trust of participating MSMEs.
- Implementing Agency: National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2196859®=3&lang=1
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Minister of state for Micro,Small & Medium Enterprises informed the Rajya Sabha about the Trade Enablement and Marketing Scheme.
- It is the sub scheme of the scheme ‘Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance’ (RAMP), which is a Central Sector Scheme.
- The initiative will empower MSMEs with digital tools and guidance to effectively utilize the e-commerce marketplace.
- Objective: To support MSMEs to help them access different markets by integrating them with e-commerce platforms.
- Financial Outlay and Duration: The outlay is Rs. 277.35 Cr. for the duration of 3 years from 2024 to 2027.
- Eligibility Criteria: All the Udyam registered Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) under manufacturing and services sectors will be eligible for benefits under the Initiative.
- Targeted beneficiaries: It envisages benefiting 5 lakh Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) of which 50% are to be women owned
- It focus on;
- Connecting MSMEs with the ONDC Network.
- Provides access to digital storefronts, integrated payment systems, and logistics support.
- Reduce operational barriers and helps businesses tap into wider customer bases.
- It emphasizes formalizing operations and establishing digital transaction histories, which will enhance the credibility and trust of participating MSMEs.
- Implementing Agency: National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2196859®=3&lang=1
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Fluoride, consider the following:
- It is an inorganic, monatomic anion of fluorine.
- It is only found in human body in trace amounts.
- It does not occur in the elemental state in nature because of its high reactivity.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, an NGO assessed that, in Odisha’s Mayurbhanj, excess fluoride in drinking water is causing widespread fluorosis in several villages.
- Fluoride is an inorganic, monatomic anion of fluorine with the chemical formula F−1.
- It is a common element that does not occur in the elemental state in nature because of its high reactivity.
- It is considered a beneficial nutrient and is present in trace amounts in the body.
- It is important for the integrity of bones and teeth. About 99% of the fluoride in the body is in the hard tissues.
- Sources of Fluoride:
- It accounts for about 3 g/kg of the Earth’s crust and exists in the form of fluorides in a number of minerals, of which fluorspar, cryolite and fluorapatite are the most common.
- It is a mineral naturally present in many foods and available as a dietary supplement.
- Soil, water, plants, and foods contain trace amounts of fluoride.
- Uses: It is used in aluminium production and as a flux in the steel and glass fibre industries. They can also be released to the environment during the production of phosphate fertilizers, bricks, tiles and ceramics.
- Health Impact of Fluoride:
- Dental fluorosis: High fluoride water can negatively impact children’s health, leading to dental fluorosis (discoloured or stained teeth)
- Skeletal (bone) fluorosis: It also causes potential skeletal fluorosis, which causes bone and joint issues.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/in-odishas-mayurbhanj-excess-fluoride-in-drinking-water-is-causing-widespread-fluorosis-in-several-villages
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, an NGO assessed that, in Odisha’s Mayurbhanj, excess fluoride in drinking water is causing widespread fluorosis in several villages.
- Fluoride is an inorganic, monatomic anion of fluorine with the chemical formula F−1.
- It is a common element that does not occur in the elemental state in nature because of its high reactivity.
- It is considered a beneficial nutrient and is present in trace amounts in the body.
- It is important for the integrity of bones and teeth. About 99% of the fluoride in the body is in the hard tissues.
- Sources of Fluoride:
- It accounts for about 3 g/kg of the Earth’s crust and exists in the form of fluorides in a number of minerals, of which fluorspar, cryolite and fluorapatite are the most common.
- It is a mineral naturally present in many foods and available as a dietary supplement.
- Soil, water, plants, and foods contain trace amounts of fluoride.
- Uses: It is used in aluminium production and as a flux in the steel and glass fibre industries. They can also be released to the environment during the production of phosphate fertilizers, bricks, tiles and ceramics.
- Health Impact of Fluoride:
- Dental fluorosis: High fluoride water can negatively impact children’s health, leading to dental fluorosis (discoloured or stained teeth)
- Skeletal (bone) fluorosis: It also causes potential skeletal fluorosis, which causes bone and joint issues.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/in-odishas-mayurbhanj-excess-fluoride-in-drinking-water-is-causing-widespread-fluorosis-in-several-villages
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsHornbill Festival, recently in news, is celebrated in:
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
Recently, the 26th edition of Nagaland’s iconic Hornbill Festival kicked off with great enthusiasm.
- It was first organized in the year 2000.
- It aims to promote inter-tribal interactionand preserve Nagaland’s heritage, blending the traditional with the contemporary in a harmonious display of unity.
- It is also called the festival of festivals and is held every year.
- Organised by: It is organized by the State Tourism and Art & Culture Departments of the Government of Nagaland.
- It is celebrated at Naga Heritage Village, Kisamawhich is about 12 km from Kohima in Nagaland.
- It has evolved into a celebration showcasing the diverse and vibrant cultural and traditional heritage of the tribes of Nagaland.
- It was named after the Hornbill birdgiven its association with the socio-cultural life of the Nagas.
- Theme of 2025 festival: Cultural Connect
- This year Nagaland has officially named Switzerland and Ireland as country partners for the Hornbill Festival 2025.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/as-hornbill-festival-begins-in-nagaland-a-state-versus-centre-row-brews-10396822/
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
Recently, the 26th edition of Nagaland’s iconic Hornbill Festival kicked off with great enthusiasm.
- It was first organized in the year 2000.
- It aims to promote inter-tribal interactionand preserve Nagaland’s heritage, blending the traditional with the contemporary in a harmonious display of unity.
- It is also called the festival of festivals and is held every year.
- Organised by: It is organized by the State Tourism and Art & Culture Departments of the Government of Nagaland.
- It is celebrated at Naga Heritage Village, Kisamawhich is about 12 km from Kohima in Nagaland.
- It has evolved into a celebration showcasing the diverse and vibrant cultural and traditional heritage of the tribes of Nagaland.
- It was named after the Hornbill birdgiven its association with the socio-cultural life of the Nagas.
- Theme of 2025 festival: Cultural Connect
- This year Nagaland has officially named Switzerland and Ireland as country partners for the Hornbill Festival 2025.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/as-hornbill-festival-begins-in-nagaland-a-state-versus-centre-row-brews-10396822/
Last updated on November, 2025
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