Practice the Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi to increase your current affairs and concept clarity. Ideal for UPSC Prelims and Mains 2025 preparation. Stay updated, revise smarter, and track your progress.
The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions.
UPSC Daily Quiz 25 October 2025
Time limit: 0
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Information
The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Your result has been entered into leaderboard
Loading
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score
Your score
Categories
Not categorized0%
maximum of 10 points
Pos.
Name
Entered on
Points
Result
Table is loading
No data available
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Answered
Review
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 points
Q1. What is Pseudorhombus bahudaensis, recently seen in the news?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
A team of researchers from the Estuarine Biology Regional Centre of the Zoological Survey of India recently discovered a new fish species named Pseudorhombus bahudaensis in the Bahuda estuary in Odisha.
About Pseudorhombus bahudaensis:
It is a new species of flounder fish.
It was discovered in the Bahuda estuary in Odisha.
It bears close resemblance to Pseudorhombus arsius, commonly known as the Gangetic largetooth flounder.
Scientists believe the species may be widespread across the Indo-Pacific region.
What is a Flounder?
Flounder is not a specific fish but rather a group of fish, specifically flatfish, that encompass different species and different families, though they all belong to the order Pleuronectiformes.
They are bottom-dwelling fish, where they lie on their wide, flat bodies and have both eyes on one side of their heads (either the left or right, depending on the species).
Flounder are a migratory species,mainly living in inshore water to a depth of around 50 m, and can move between saltwater and freshwater environments.
A team of researchers from the Estuarine Biology Regional Centre of the Zoological Survey of India recently discovered a new fish species named Pseudorhombus bahudaensis in the Bahuda estuary in Odisha.
About Pseudorhombus bahudaensis:
It is a new species of flounder fish.
It was discovered in the Bahuda estuary in Odisha.
It bears close resemblance to Pseudorhombus arsius, commonly known as the Gangetic largetooth flounder.
Scientists believe the species may be widespread across the Indo-Pacific region.
What is a Flounder?
Flounder is not a specific fish but rather a group of fish, specifically flatfish, that encompass different species and different families, though they all belong to the order Pleuronectiformes.
They are bottom-dwelling fish, where they lie on their wide, flat bodies and have both eyes on one side of their heads (either the left or right, depending on the species).
Flounder are a migratory species,mainly living in inshore water to a depth of around 50 m, and can move between saltwater and freshwater environments.
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Leachate, recently seen in the news:
It is a chemical byproduct of industrial cooling systems.
It can contaminate the environment and pose serious health risks if not properly managed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Environmentalists, wildlife activists, and locals recently sought immediate intervention by the Union Environment Ministry into the recurring illegal discharge of highly toxic, untreated leachate into the Aravalis.
About Leachate:
Leachate is a highly toxic and contaminated liquid usually generated from municipal landfills.
This toxic liquid accumulates at the bottom of the landfill.
Landfill leachate water forms through waste decomposition, water infiltration, and chemical reactions within a landfill.
The composition of leachate varies depending on the type of waste in the landfill, the landfill’s age, and environmental conditions such as rainfall and temperature.
In general, leachate generally contains a mix of organic pollutants, inorganic compounds, heavy metals, and microbial contaminants.
The chemical composition of leachate makes it dangerous; It can contaminate the environment and pose serious health risks if not properly managed.
Leachate management is critical to landfill operations due to its potential to spread pollution and contaminate virgin groundwater sources.
Strict environmental regulations mandate proper leachate collection and disposal to prevent environmental degradation.
Environmentalists, wildlife activists, and locals recently sought immediate intervention by the Union Environment Ministry into the recurring illegal discharge of highly toxic, untreated leachate into the Aravalis.
About Leachate:
Leachate is a highly toxic and contaminated liquid usually generated from municipal landfills.
This toxic liquid accumulates at the bottom of the landfill.
Landfill leachate water forms through waste decomposition, water infiltration, and chemical reactions within a landfill.
The composition of leachate varies depending on the type of waste in the landfill, the landfill’s age, and environmental conditions such as rainfall and temperature.
In general, leachate generally contains a mix of organic pollutants, inorganic compounds, heavy metals, and microbial contaminants.
The chemical composition of leachate makes it dangerous; It can contaminate the environment and pose serious health risks if not properly managed.
Leachate management is critical to landfill operations due to its potential to spread pollution and contaminate virgin groundwater sources.
Strict environmental regulations mandate proper leachate collection and disposal to prevent environmental degradation.
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Kopi Luwak, recently seen in the news:
It is one of the world’s most expensive and exclusive coffees.
It’s made from beans that have been partially digested and excreted by the Malayan tapir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
A recent study revealed that civet-processed Robusta coffee, known as Kopi Luwak, differs significantly from naturally harvested Robusta beans in its fatty acid composition and total fat content, providing new scientific insight into the unique aroma and flavour that make it famous.
About Kopi Luwak:
Kopi Luwak, also known as Civet Coffee, is one of the world’s most expensive and exclusive coffees.
It’s made from beans that have been partially digested and excreted by the Asian Palm Civet.
After the civet eats ripe coffee cherries, the beans are excreted, collected, washed, dried, and then roasted to produce coffee with a unique, smooth, and silky texture.
The beans’ fermentation process results in a coffee with distinctive flavor notes of chocolate, caramel, and nuts, accompanied by low acidity.
The distinct flavour may derive from the animal’s gut and digestive fluids.
Gastric juices and enzymes from the civet’s stomach increase the level of citric acid in the beans, resulting in a coffee with a lemony tanginess and a more delicate aroma.
This rare coffee is highly sought after and is considered a luxury item.
However, the production of Kopi Luwak has sparked ethical concerns.
Civets are sometimes kept in small cages and are force-fed coffee cherries, leading to calls for more ethical and sustainable production methods.
Despite these concerns, Kopi Luwak remains a highly prized delicacy, and can cost more than US$1,300 per kilogram.
A recent study revealed that civet-processed Robusta coffee, known as Kopi Luwak, differs significantly from naturally harvested Robusta beans in its fatty acid composition and total fat content, providing new scientific insight into the unique aroma and flavour that make it famous.
About Kopi Luwak:
Kopi Luwak, also known as Civet Coffee, is one of the world’s most expensive and exclusive coffees.
It’s made from beans that have been partially digested and excreted by the Asian Palm Civet.
After the civet eats ripe coffee cherries, the beans are excreted, collected, washed, dried, and then roasted to produce coffee with a unique, smooth, and silky texture.
The beans’ fermentation process results in a coffee with distinctive flavor notes of chocolate, caramel, and nuts, accompanied by low acidity.
The distinct flavour may derive from the animal’s gut and digestive fluids.
Gastric juices and enzymes from the civet’s stomach increase the level of citric acid in the beans, resulting in a coffee with a lemony tanginess and a more delicate aroma.
This rare coffee is highly sought after and is considered a luxury item.
However, the production of Kopi Luwak has sparked ethical concerns.
Civets are sometimes kept in small cages and are force-fed coffee cherries, leading to calls for more ethical and sustainable production methods.
Despite these concerns, Kopi Luwak remains a highly prized delicacy, and can cost more than US$1,300 per kilogram.
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding National Unity Day:
It is observed on November 1st every year.
It commemorates the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will lead the celebrations of National Unity Day at the Statue of Unity in Gujarat’s Narmada Valley on October 31.
About National Unity Day:
National Unity Day, or Rashtriya Ekta Diwas, is observed on October 31st every year.
This significant day commemorates the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, a pivotal figure in India’s struggle for independence and the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of India.
It was introduced by the Government of India in 2014.
Renowned for his exceptional leadership and unyielding commitment to national integration, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is fondly remembered as the “Iron Man of India.”
National Unity Day serves as a reminder of his efforts to unite the diverse princely states into a single nation and fosters a spirit of solidarity among the people of India.
This year marks the 150th birth anniversary of Vallabhbhai Patel.
One of the key highlights of the day is the Run for Unity, a nationwide marathon held to honor Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel’s vision of a united India.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will lead the celebrations of National Unity Day at the Statue of Unity in Gujarat’s Narmada Valley on October 31.
About National Unity Day:
National Unity Day, or Rashtriya Ekta Diwas, is observed on October 31st every year.
This significant day commemorates the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, a pivotal figure in India’s struggle for independence and the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of India.
It was introduced by the Government of India in 2014.
Renowned for his exceptional leadership and unyielding commitment to national integration, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is fondly remembered as the “Iron Man of India.”
National Unity Day serves as a reminder of his efforts to unite the diverse princely states into a single nation and fosters a spirit of solidarity among the people of India.
This year marks the 150th birth anniversary of Vallabhbhai Patel.
One of the key highlights of the day is the Run for Unity, a nationwide marathon held to honor Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel’s vision of a united India.
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Notice to Airmen (NOTAM):
It is a notification alerting airspace users to hazards along their route, both in the air and on the ground.
It is issued by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
India recently issued a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) for a large-scale tri-services military exercise, “Ex Trishul,” to be conducted along the Pakistan border.
About Notice to Airmen (NOTAM):
Notice to Airmen, also known as Notice to Air Mission, is a notice containing information concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure, or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
In short, a NOTAM is a notification from an official body alerting airspace usersto hazards along their route, both in the air and on the ground.
NOTAMs update pilots about changes in airspace, airports, and equipment that affect aircraft operations.
NOTAMs are issued by national aviation authorities for a number of reasons, such as:
Hazards such as air-shows, parachute jumps, and glider or micro-light flying;
Flights by important people such as heads of state;
Closed runways, taxiways, etc;
Unserviceable radio navigational aids;
Military exercises with resulting airspace restrictions;
Unserviceable lights on tall obstructions;
Temporary erection of obstacles near airfields (e.g. cranes).
For reasons of conciseness and precision, NOTAMs are encoded, although the code is usually sufficiently self-evident to allow the user to identify a hazard.
NOTAMs are communicated by the issuing agency using the fastest available means to all addressees for whom the information is assessed as being of direct operational significance, and who would not otherwise have at least seven days’ prior notification.
NOTAMs are typically accessible through online platforms, electronic flight planning tools, and aviation weather services, allowing pilots to conveniently access up-to-date information and make informed decisions regarding their flight activities.
Pilots who do not review NOTAMs before flight put themselves (and others) in danger.
India recently issued a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) for a large-scale tri-services military exercise, “Ex Trishul,” to be conducted along the Pakistan border.
About Notice to Airmen (NOTAM):
Notice to Airmen, also known as Notice to Air Mission, is a notice containing information concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure, or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
In short, a NOTAM is a notification from an official body alerting airspace usersto hazards along their route, both in the air and on the ground.
NOTAMs update pilots about changes in airspace, airports, and equipment that affect aircraft operations.
NOTAMs are issued by national aviation authorities for a number of reasons, such as:
Hazards such as air-shows, parachute jumps, and glider or micro-light flying;
Flights by important people such as heads of state;
Closed runways, taxiways, etc;
Unserviceable radio navigational aids;
Military exercises with resulting airspace restrictions;
Unserviceable lights on tall obstructions;
Temporary erection of obstacles near airfields (e.g. cranes).
For reasons of conciseness and precision, NOTAMs are encoded, although the code is usually sufficiently self-evident to allow the user to identify a hazard.
NOTAMs are communicated by the issuing agency using the fastest available means to all addressees for whom the information is assessed as being of direct operational significance, and who would not otherwise have at least seven days’ prior notification.
NOTAMs are typically accessible through online platforms, electronic flight planning tools, and aviation weather services, allowing pilots to conveniently access up-to-date information and make informed decisions regarding their flight activities.
Pilots who do not review NOTAMs before flight put themselves (and others) in danger.
Q6. Project Arunank, recently in news, is an initiative of:
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the Project Arunank of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) marked its 18th Raising Day.
It has been implemented since 2008 by the Border Roads Organization (BRO) in Arunachal Pradesh.
The name of the Project has been conceived from the name of the State of Arunachal Pradesh.
Objective: To provide vital connectivity to remote valleys & forward areas of Arunachal Pradesh while meeting the operational requirements of the Armed Forces.
It has adopted innovative and sustainable technologies such as Steel Slag, Cut-and-Cover Tunnels, Geo Cells, Plastic Sheets, GGBFS Concrete and Gabion Walls, enhancing the durability and environmental sustainability of road infrastructure in the region.
Achievements of Project Arunank
It has completed the 278 km Hapoli-Sarli-Huri Road, blacktopped for the first time since Independence, connecting one of the remotest regions of Kurung Kumey district.
It played a critical role in developing communication systems for socio-economic and strategic growth in the region.
Recently, the Project Arunank of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) marked its 18th Raising Day.
It has been implemented since 2008 by the Border Roads Organization (BRO) in Arunachal Pradesh.
The name of the Project has been conceived from the name of the State of Arunachal Pradesh.
Objective: To provide vital connectivity to remote valleys & forward areas of Arunachal Pradesh while meeting the operational requirements of the Armed Forces.
It has adopted innovative and sustainable technologies such as Steel Slag, Cut-and-Cover Tunnels, Geo Cells, Plastic Sheets, GGBFS Concrete and Gabion Walls, enhancing the durability and environmental sustainability of road infrastructure in the region.
Achievements of Project Arunank
It has completed the 278 km Hapoli-Sarli-Huri Road, blacktopped for the first time since Independence, connecting one of the remotest regions of Kurung Kumey district.
It played a critical role in developing communication systems for socio-economic and strategic growth in the region.
Q7.Consider the following statements regarding Mahe- Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft:
It is built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) Kochi.
It been designed and constructed as per the classification rules of Det Norske Veritas (DNV).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Mahe Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) was delivered to the Indian Navy.
It is the first of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Crafts (ASW SWC).
Built by: It was built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) Kochi.
It was named after the historic port town in the Union Territory of Puducherry, symbolises India’s rich maritime heritage.
The warship has been designed and constructed as per the classification rules of Det Norske Veritas (DNV).
Features of Mahe
Capacity: It has a displacement of around 1,100 tons.
It carries torpedoes, multi-functional anti-submarine rockets, and sophisticated radar and sonar systems that allow it to detect underwater threats with precision.
The ship can also perform underwater surveillance, lay naval mines if required, and take part in smaller-scale coastal operations known as Low Intensity Maritime Operations.
Significance: It will significantly augment the Indian Navy’s ASW capability, enhancing maritime security in the littorals.
Recently, the Mahe Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) was delivered to the Indian Navy.
It is the first of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Crafts (ASW SWC).
Built by: It was built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) Kochi.
It was named after the historic port town in the Union Territory of Puducherry, symbolises India’s rich maritime heritage.
The warship has been designed and constructed as per the classification rules of Det Norske Veritas (DNV).
Features of Mahe
Capacity: It has a displacement of around 1,100 tons.
It carries torpedoes, multi-functional anti-submarine rockets, and sophisticated radar and sonar systems that allow it to detect underwater threats with precision.
The ship can also perform underwater surveillance, lay naval mines if required, and take part in smaller-scale coastal operations known as Low Intensity Maritime Operations.
Significance: It will significantly augment the Indian Navy’s ASW capability, enhancing maritime security in the littorals.
Q8.Consider the following statements regarding Network Survey Vehicle:
It is a specialized infrastructure management tool that collects data on road inventory and condition of National Highways.
It consists of Global Positioning System and Video image processing tools.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) has announced that it will deploy Network Survey Vehicles (NSVs) in 23 states.
It is a specialized infrastructure management tool comprising vehicles equipped with advanced sensors and data acquisition systems.
These vehicles systematically collect data on road inventory and condition of National Highways.
Working of Network Survey Vehicle:
It is usually a specialised van or SUV equipped with multiple sensors and instruments.
It consists of Laser, Global Positioning System (GPS), Video image processing tools, High-resolution cameras, Inertial Measurement Units (IMU), and DMI (Distance Measuring Indicator).
The survey will capture 13 types of defects, including crack measurement, ravelling, patch area, potholes, edge break, roughness, rutting, lane marking, etc.
It will also cover details like carriageway type, road type, pavement and shoulder width, topography, median details, right of way, utilities, land use, etc.
The data will be collected for all projects involving 2/4/6 and 8 lanes with NSV before the start of work and thereafter at regular intervals of six months.
Data collected through NSV survey will be uploaded on NHAI’s ‘AI’ based portal Data Lake, where it will be analysed to transform data into knowledge and subsequent actionable insights.
Recently, the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) has announced that it will deploy Network Survey Vehicles (NSVs) in 23 states.
It is a specialized infrastructure management tool comprising vehicles equipped with advanced sensors and data acquisition systems.
These vehicles systematically collect data on road inventory and condition of National Highways.
Working of Network Survey Vehicle:
It is usually a specialised van or SUV equipped with multiple sensors and instruments.
It consists of Laser, Global Positioning System (GPS), Video image processing tools, High-resolution cameras, Inertial Measurement Units (IMU), and DMI (Distance Measuring Indicator).
The survey will capture 13 types of defects, including crack measurement, ravelling, patch area, potholes, edge break, roughness, rutting, lane marking, etc.
It will also cover details like carriageway type, road type, pavement and shoulder width, topography, median details, right of way, utilities, land use, etc.
The data will be collected for all projects involving 2/4/6 and 8 lanes with NSV before the start of work and thereafter at regular intervals of six months.
Data collected through NSV survey will be uploaded on NHAI’s ‘AI’ based portal Data Lake, where it will be analysed to transform data into knowledge and subsequent actionable insights.
Q9. With reference to the International Convention against Doping in Sport, consider the following:
It allows governments to formally recognize the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) and the Code.
It adopted during the World Anti-Doping Agency General Conference in 2005.
It aims to harmonize anti-doping legislation and safe playing environment for all athletes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
India has been re-elected as the Vice-Chairperson of the Bureau for the Asia-Pacific (Group IV) at the 10th Session of the Conference of Parties (COP10) to the International Convention against Doping in Sport.
It is a multilateral treaty by which States agree to adopt national and international measures to prevent and eliminate doping in sport.
The Convention was adopted during the 33rd session of UNESCO’s General Conference (19 October 2005) and entered into force on 1 February 2007.
Members: It consists of 192 States Parties, making it UNESCO’s second most ratified treaty.
Aim: The Convention aims to harmonize anti-doping legislation, guidelines, regulations, and rules internationally in order to provide a level and safe playing environment for all athletes.
Governance: The Conference of Parties (COP) is the sovereign body of the Convention, meeting in ordinary session biennially.
It has overall responsibility for its implementation and evolution.
Features of International Convention against Doping in Sport
The convention allows governments to formally recognize the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) and the Code.
It works under a positive implementation approach, providing guidance, financial support, skill-training and capacity-building to empower States Parties aiming to enhance their implementation of the Convention.
It also provides a global forum for public and private stakeholders of the sport integrity ecosystem.
Funding mechanism:Anti-Doping Fund was formed to create awareness about doping.
India has been re-elected as the Vice-Chairperson of the Bureau for the Asia-Pacific (Group IV) at the 10th Session of the Conference of Parties (COP10) to the International Convention against Doping in Sport.
It is a multilateral treaty by which States agree to adopt national and international measures to prevent and eliminate doping in sport.
The Convention was adopted during the 33rd session of UNESCO’s General Conference (19 October 2005) and entered into force on 1 February 2007.
Members: It consists of 192 States Parties, making it UNESCO’s second most ratified treaty.
Aim: The Convention aims to harmonize anti-doping legislation, guidelines, regulations, and rules internationally in order to provide a level and safe playing environment for all athletes.
Governance: The Conference of Parties (COP) is the sovereign body of the Convention, meeting in ordinary session biennially.
It has overall responsibility for its implementation and evolution.
Features of International Convention against Doping in Sport
The convention allows governments to formally recognize the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) and the Code.
It works under a positive implementation approach, providing guidance, financial support, skill-training and capacity-building to empower States Parties aiming to enhance their implementation of the Convention.
It also provides a global forum for public and private stakeholders of the sport integrity ecosystem.
Funding mechanism:Anti-Doping Fund was formed to create awareness about doping.
Consider the following statements regarding Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) scheme:
It was initiated to offer Least Developed Countries (LDCs) preferential access to the Indian market.
Under this scheme tariff preference is given only to agricultural products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the World Trade Organization credits India’s Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) scheme for boosting exports from poorest nation.
It was initiated in 2008 and offers Least Developed Countries (LDCs) preferential access to the Indian market.
The DFTP scheme aims to boost LDCs’ economic growth, diversify exports, and strengthen trade relations.
Objective: The objective of the scheme for LDCs is grant of tariff preferences on the exports of the Least Developed Countries on imports to India.
Key Features of India’s DFTP Scheme
Duty-Free Access to Indian Market: Under the DFTP scheme, products from LDCs are eligible for duty-free access to the Indian market.
Eligible Countries: Itis available to all LDCs recognized by the United Nations. India offers this preferential access to around 48 countries classified as LDCs, including countries in Africa, Asia, and the Pacific.
Eligible Products: A wide range of products from LDCs can benefit from the DFTP scheme. These include:
Agricultural products: Fruits, vegetables, spices, and grains.
Textiles and garments: Clothing, fabrics, and textiles made in LDCs.
Handicrafts and traditional goods: Handwoven textiles, jewelry, and locally produced crafts.
Leather goods: Leather garments, bags, and accessories.
Minerals and metals: Products like gold, diamonds, and other raw materials.
Recently, the World Trade Organization credits India’s Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) scheme for boosting exports from poorest nation.
It was initiated in 2008 and offers Least Developed Countries (LDCs) preferential access to the Indian market.
The DFTP scheme aims to boost LDCs’ economic growth, diversify exports, and strengthen trade relations.
Objective: The objective of the scheme for LDCs is grant of tariff preferences on the exports of the Least Developed Countries on imports to India.
Key Features of India’s DFTP Scheme
Duty-Free Access to Indian Market: Under the DFTP scheme, products from LDCs are eligible for duty-free access to the Indian market.
Eligible Countries: Itis available to all LDCs recognized by the United Nations. India offers this preferential access to around 48 countries classified as LDCs, including countries in Africa, Asia, and the Pacific.
Eligible Products: A wide range of products from LDCs can benefit from the DFTP scheme. These include:
Agricultural products: Fruits, vegetables, spices, and grains.
Textiles and garments: Clothing, fabrics, and textiles made in LDCs.
Handicrafts and traditional goods: Handwoven textiles, jewelry, and locally produced crafts.
Leather goods: Leather garments, bags, and accessories.
Minerals and metals: Products like gold, diamonds, and other raw materials.
Ans. The Daily UPSC Quiz is a set of practice questions based on current affairs, static subjects, and PYQs that help aspirants enhance retention and test conceptual clarity regularly.
Q2. How is the Daily Quiz useful for UPSC preparation?+
Ans. Daily quizzes support learning, help in revision, improve time management, and boost accuracy for both UPSC Prelims and Mains through consistent practice.
Q3. Are the quiz questions based on the UPSC syllabus?+
Ans. Yes, all questions are aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, covering key areas like Polity, Economy, Environment, History, Geography, and Current Affairs.
Q4. Are solutions and explanations provided with the quiz?+
Ans. Yes, each quiz includes detailed explanations and source references to enhance conceptual understanding and enable self-assessment.
Q5. Is the Daily UPSC Quiz suitable for both Prelims and Mains?+
Ans. Primarily focused on Prelims (MCQ format), but it also indirectly helps in Mains by strengthening subject knowledge and factual clarity.
At Vajiram & Ravi, our team includes subject experts who have appeared for the UPSC Mains and the Interview stage. With their deep understanding of the exam, they create content that is clear, to the point, reliable, and helpful for aspirants.Their aim is to make even difficult topics easy to understand and directly useful for your UPSC preparation—whether it’s for Current Affairs, General Studies, or Optional subjects. Every note, article, or test is designed to save your time and boost your performance.