Practice the Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi to increase your current affairs and concept clarity. Ideal for UPSC Prelims and Mains 2025 preparation. Stay updated, revise smarter, and track your progress.
The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions.
UPSC Daily Quiz 29 October 2025
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The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
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Q1. Satkosia Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
In the wake of allegations that village relocation in the Satkosia Tiger Reserve has not been carried out properly, the Odisha Human Rights Commission (OHRC) has asked the Forest and Revenue departments and the Angul collector to submit all records in this connection.
About Satkosia Tiger Reserve:
It is located in the heartland of Odisha and spread over four districts, viz. Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh.
Spanning 1,136.70 sq. km, the reserve encompasses the Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and Baisipalli Wildlife Sanctuary, divided by the Mahanadi River.
The area is also a part of the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve.
It is the meeting point of two biogeographic regions of India, the Deccan Peninsula and the Eastern Ghats, contributing immense biodiversity.
Landscape:
The terrain is hilly with moderate to steep slopes and narrow valleys.
The average elevation of the terrain varies between 37 m and 932 m, with the lowest point being at Katrang and the highest point being at Sunakhania.
Vegetation: The forest vegetation comprises North Indian tropical moist deciduous forests and Moist peninsular low-level sal.
Flora:
The main tree species is sal, which grows in gregarious formations.
Other associate species are Asan (Terminalia alata), Dhaura (Anogeissus latifolia), Bamboo (Dendrocalamus strictus), and Simal (Bombax ceiba).
Fauna:
The flagship species among the fauna include tiger, leopard, elephant, spotted deer, sambar, chowsingha, barking deer, bison, wild dog, sloth bear, jackal, giant squirrel, and porcupine.
It is the natural habitat of two endangered species, viz., the freshwater crocodile and the gharial.
In the wake of allegations that village relocation in the Satkosia Tiger Reserve has not been carried out properly, the Odisha Human Rights Commission (OHRC) has asked the Forest and Revenue departments and the Angul collector to submit all records in this connection.
About Satkosia Tiger Reserve:
It is located in the heartland of Odisha and spread over four districts, viz. Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh.
Spanning 1,136.70 sq. km, the reserve encompasses the Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and Baisipalli Wildlife Sanctuary, divided by the Mahanadi River.
The area is also a part of the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve.
It is the meeting point of two biogeographic regions of India, the Deccan Peninsula and the Eastern Ghats, contributing immense biodiversity.
Landscape:
The terrain is hilly with moderate to steep slopes and narrow valleys.
The average elevation of the terrain varies between 37 m and 932 m, with the lowest point being at Katrang and the highest point being at Sunakhania.
Vegetation: The forest vegetation comprises North Indian tropical moist deciduous forests and Moist peninsular low-level sal.
Flora:
The main tree species is sal, which grows in gregarious formations.
Other associate species are Asan (Terminalia alata), Dhaura (Anogeissus latifolia), Bamboo (Dendrocalamus strictus), and Simal (Bombax ceiba).
Fauna:
The flagship species among the fauna include tiger, leopard, elephant, spotted deer, sambar, chowsingha, barking deer, bison, wild dog, sloth bear, jackal, giant squirrel, and porcupine.
It is the natural habitat of two endangered species, viz., the freshwater crocodile and the gharial.
Q2. The SJ-100 aircraft, recently seen in the news, is of which country’s origin?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
The Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and Russia’s United Aircraft Corporation (UAC) recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding for production of civil commuter aircraft SJ-100.
About SJ-100:
It is a new generation short-haul jet aircraft of Russian origin.
Earlier called the Sukhoi Superjet 100, it originally was designed by the now-merged Russian aircraft company Sukhoi Civil Aircraft.
It is a twin-engine, narrow-body aircraft.
The aircraft is primarily used for commercial purposes.
As on date, over 200 SJ-100 aircraft have been manufactured.
The aircraft are being operated by more than 16 airlines across the world, nine of them being from Russia.
It is capable of accommodating 103 seats and has a flight range of 3,530 kilometres.
The aircraft has been touted as having low operating costs for airlines.
It can operate at extreme weather conditions, from -55 degrees Celsius to +45 degrees Celsius.
The Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and Russia’s United Aircraft Corporation (UAC) recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding for production of civil commuter aircraft SJ-100.
About SJ-100:
It is a new generation short-haul jet aircraft of Russian origin.
Earlier called the Sukhoi Superjet 100, it originally was designed by the now-merged Russian aircraft company Sukhoi Civil Aircraft.
It is a twin-engine, narrow-body aircraft.
The aircraft is primarily used for commercial purposes.
As on date, over 200 SJ-100 aircraft have been manufactured.
The aircraft are being operated by more than 16 airlines across the world, nine of them being from Russia.
It is capable of accommodating 103 seats and has a flight range of 3,530 kilometres.
The aircraft has been touted as having low operating costs for airlines.
It can operate at extreme weather conditions, from -55 degrees Celsius to +45 degrees Celsius.
Q3. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Coelacanth’, that was in the news recently?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Paleontologists in China have described a new species of the coelacanth genus Whiteia on the basis of two fossilized specimens.
About Coelacanth:
The Coelacanth is a prehistoric, lobe-finned fish (belonging to the order Coelacanthiformes) that was once thought to be extinct for about 66 million years, until it was rediscovered alive in 1938 off the coast of South Africa.
It is often called a “living fossil.”
The earliest coelacanth fossils date back as far as the Devonian period, approximately 420 mya.
At one time coelacanths were a large group comprising about 90 valid species that were distributed worldwide in both marine and freshwaters.
At present, there are two living species of coelacanth, the West Indian Ocean coelacanth and the Indonesian coelacanth.
These fish live in deep saltwater environments and can grow to be nearly 2 meters long.
They have fleshy, limb-like fins that are internally supported by bone.
Their fins are also paired and move in a synchronized pattern similar to four-limbed animals.
As one of the last lobe-finned fish, coelacanths have numerous characteristics unique among living fish.
Among them is the presence of a special electrosensory organ in the snout called the “rostral organ.”
This organ is filled with a gel and enables the coelacanth to sense low-frequency electrical signals and “see” in the dark.
Another is a joint or “hinge” in the skull that allows the front portion of the braincase to swing upwards, greatly enlarging the gape of the mouth.
Paleontologists in China have described a new species of the coelacanth genus Whiteia on the basis of two fossilized specimens.
About Coelacanth:
The Coelacanth is a prehistoric, lobe-finned fish (belonging to the order Coelacanthiformes) that was once thought to be extinct for about 66 million years, until it was rediscovered alive in 1938 off the coast of South Africa.
It is often called a “living fossil.”
The earliest coelacanth fossils date back as far as the Devonian period, approximately 420 mya.
At one time coelacanths were a large group comprising about 90 valid species that were distributed worldwide in both marine and freshwaters.
At present, there are two living species of coelacanth, the West Indian Ocean coelacanth and the Indonesian coelacanth.
These fish live in deep saltwater environments and can grow to be nearly 2 meters long.
They have fleshy, limb-like fins that are internally supported by bone.
Their fins are also paired and move in a synchronized pattern similar to four-limbed animals.
As one of the last lobe-finned fish, coelacanths have numerous characteristics unique among living fish.
Among them is the presence of a special electrosensory organ in the snout called the “rostral organ.”
This organ is filled with a gel and enables the coelacanth to sense low-frequency electrical signals and “see” in the dark.
Another is a joint or “hinge” in the skull that allows the front portion of the braincase to swing upwards, greatly enlarging the gape of the mouth.
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Loktak Hydroelectric Project, recently seen in the news:
It is a 1 GW run-of-the-river hydroelectric project.
It is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
Head of Project at NHPC Ltd. and recently appointed General Manager (Electrical) called on the Manipur Governor and briefed him about the operational challenges faced by the Loktak Hydroelectric Project.
About Loktak Hydroelectric Project:
It is a 105 MW hydropower project.
It is located in Manipur.
It is constructed on the Loktak Lake, the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India.
It has been developed in a single phase.
The project construction commenced in 1971 and subsequently entered into commercial operation in 1983.
A major component of the project is the Ithai barrage – which acts as an artificial reservoir to ensure sufficient volumes of water for the project.
The project is currently owned by NHPC Limited (erstwhile National Hydroelectric Power Corporation).
The power generated from the project is sold to Assam Power Distribution under a power purchase agreement for a period of 35 years, starting from 2016.
Head of Project at NHPC Ltd. and recently appointed General Manager (Electrical) called on the Manipur Governor and briefed him about the operational challenges faced by the Loktak Hydroelectric Project.
About Loktak Hydroelectric Project:
It is a 105 MW hydropower project.
It is located in Manipur.
It is constructed on the Loktak Lake, the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India.
It has been developed in a single phase.
The project construction commenced in 1971 and subsequently entered into commercial operation in 1983.
A major component of the project is the Ithai barrage – which acts as an artificial reservoir to ensure sufficient volumes of water for the project.
The project is currently owned by NHPC Limited (erstwhile National Hydroelectric Power Corporation).
The power generated from the project is sold to Assam Power Distribution under a power purchase agreement for a period of 35 years, starting from 2016.
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Doctrine of Merger:
It provides that when an appellate court passes an order, the order passed by the lower court is merged with that order.
It is not a doctrine of universal or unlimited application.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
In a judgment clarifying the limits of the doctrine of merger, the Supreme Court of India recently observed that the doctrine of merger is not a doctrine of rigid and universal application.
About Doctrine of Merger:
It is a common law doctrine founded on the principle of maintenance of decorum and propriety in the functioning of Courts and Tribunals and preserving the sanctity of the justice delivery system.
The underlying logic being that there cannot be more than one decree or operative order governing the same subject matter at a given point of time.
It provides that when an appellate court passes an order, the order passed by the lower court is merged with that order.
The doctrine is not recognized statutorily but is a statement of judicial propriety and seeks to instill discipline in the functioning of subordinate adjudicating authorities, whether judicial, quasi-judicial, or administrative.
The applicability of the doctrine of merger entails the existence of a decision of a subordinate court/forum against which a right of appeal/revision before a superior forum/authority exists, which has been exercised and which has either modified, reversed or affirmed the decision of the subordinate authority.
The consequence of such an act would be that the decision of the subordinate authority shall merge with that of the superior forum, which only shall sustain, be operative and capable of being enforced.
The essence of the doctrine of merger is that it is only the decisions of the appellate, revisional, or higher authority that subsist, and the order under challenge ceases to have an independent existence.
The doctrine solves the issue of which order must be enforced and given importance if there are multiple orders passed by both subordinate and superior courts on a single issue.
It is not a doctrine of universal or unlimited application. It will depend on the nature of the jurisdiction exercised by the superior forum and the content or subject matter of the challenge.
In a judgment clarifying the limits of the doctrine of merger, the Supreme Court of India recently observed that the doctrine of merger is not a doctrine of rigid and universal application.
About Doctrine of Merger:
It is a common law doctrine founded on the principle of maintenance of decorum and propriety in the functioning of Courts and Tribunals and preserving the sanctity of the justice delivery system.
The underlying logic being that there cannot be more than one decree or operative order governing the same subject matter at a given point of time.
It provides that when an appellate court passes an order, the order passed by the lower court is merged with that order.
The doctrine is not recognized statutorily but is a statement of judicial propriety and seeks to instill discipline in the functioning of subordinate adjudicating authorities, whether judicial, quasi-judicial, or administrative.
The applicability of the doctrine of merger entails the existence of a decision of a subordinate court/forum against which a right of appeal/revision before a superior forum/authority exists, which has been exercised and which has either modified, reversed or affirmed the decision of the subordinate authority.
The consequence of such an act would be that the decision of the subordinate authority shall merge with that of the superior forum, which only shall sustain, be operative and capable of being enforced.
The essence of the doctrine of merger is that it is only the decisions of the appellate, revisional, or higher authority that subsist, and the order under challenge ceases to have an independent existence.
The doctrine solves the issue of which order must be enforced and given importance if there are multiple orders passed by both subordinate and superior courts on a single issue.
It is not a doctrine of universal or unlimited application. It will depend on the nature of the jurisdiction exercised by the superior forum and the content or subject matter of the challenge.
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding National Seeds Corporation:
It pivotal role in producing and supplying quality seeds to farmers across the country.
It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Cooperation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the Union Minister for Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare and Rural Development, inaugurated National Seeds Corporation’s state-of-the-art seed processing plant at Pusa Complex, New Delhi.
It was established in 1963 to undertake production of foundation and certified seeds.
It is under the administrative control of the Department of Agriculture & Farmer’s Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare.
It is a Schedule ‘B’ – Mini Ratna Category-I Company, fully owned by the Government of India.
Functions ofNational Seeds Corporation
It has been playing a pivotal role in producing and supplying quality seeds to farmers across the country.
It plays a key role in the implementation of various schemes of the Govt. of India like “National Mission on Oil Seed and Oil Palm (NMOOP)”, “National Food Security Mission (NFSM)” and “Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
It provides technical support to the seed producing agencies including State Seed Corporations by imparting training of personnel engaged in the production of seeds in those organizations.
It is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Central Sector Scheme to create infrastructure facilities for establishment of processing plants and storage godowns in different states in the private sectors.
The SAARC seed bank maintained by NSC with the grant in aid of the Govt. of India holds larger quantity of seeds of different crops & varieties.
Recently, the Union Minister for Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare and Rural Development, inaugurated National Seeds Corporation’s state-of-the-art seed processing plant at Pusa Complex, New Delhi.
It was established in 1963 to undertake production of foundation and certified seeds.
It is under the administrative control of the Department of Agriculture & Farmer’s Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare.
It is a Schedule ‘B’ – Mini Ratna Category-I Company, fully owned by the Government of India.
Functions ofNational Seeds Corporation
It has been playing a pivotal role in producing and supplying quality seeds to farmers across the country.
It plays a key role in the implementation of various schemes of the Govt. of India like “National Mission on Oil Seed and Oil Palm (NMOOP)”, “National Food Security Mission (NFSM)” and “Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
It provides technical support to the seed producing agencies including State Seed Corporations by imparting training of personnel engaged in the production of seeds in those organizations.
It is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Central Sector Scheme to create infrastructure facilities for establishment of processing plants and storage godowns in different states in the private sectors.
The SAARC seed bank maintained by NSC with the grant in aid of the Govt. of India holds larger quantity of seeds of different crops & varieties.
Q7.Consider the following statements regarding Rehabilitation Council of India:
It is a statutory body established to regulate and monitor services given to persons with disabilities.
It works under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI) has announced a sweeping set of reforms designed to bring transparency, efficiency and inclusivity to the rehabilitation ecosystem across the country.
It is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.
Background: It was set up as a registered society in 1986. On September 1992 the RCI Act was enacted by Parliament and it became a Statutory Body on 22 June 1993.
Mandate: To regulate and monitor services given to persons with disabilities, to standardise syllabi and to maintain a Central Rehabilitation Register of all qualified professionals and personnel working in the field of Rehabilitation and Special Education.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
Objectives of Rehabilitation Council of India:
To regulate the training policies and programmes in the field of rehabilitation of persons with disabilities
To bring about standardization of training courses for professionals dealing with persons with disabilities
To maintain Central Rehabilitation Register for registration of professionals/ personnel
The Council also prescribes minimum standards of education and training for 16 categories of professionals and personnel allocated to RCI.
To recognize the national institutes and apex institutions on disability as manpower development centres.
The Council also prescribes minimum standards of education and training for 16 categories of professionals and personnel allocated to RCI.
Recently, the Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI) has announced a sweeping set of reforms designed to bring transparency, efficiency and inclusivity to the rehabilitation ecosystem across the country.
It is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.
Background: It was set up as a registered society in 1986. On September 1992 the RCI Act was enacted by Parliament and it became a Statutory Body on 22 June 1993.
Mandate: To regulate and monitor services given to persons with disabilities, to standardise syllabi and to maintain a Central Rehabilitation Register of all qualified professionals and personnel working in the field of Rehabilitation and Special Education.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
Objectives of Rehabilitation Council of India:
To regulate the training policies and programmes in the field of rehabilitation of persons with disabilities
To bring about standardization of training courses for professionals dealing with persons with disabilities
To maintain Central Rehabilitation Register for registration of professionals/ personnel
The Council also prescribes minimum standards of education and training for 16 categories of professionals and personnel allocated to RCI.
To recognize the national institutes and apex institutions on disability as manpower development centres.
The Council also prescribes minimum standards of education and training for 16 categories of professionals and personnel allocated to RCI.
Q9. With reference to Karakoram wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following:
It is located in the union territory of Ladakh.
It is situated to the south of Hemis National Park.
Shyok and Nubra Rivers are the major water sources of this sanctuary.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, a proposal of redrawing the boundaries and expanse of the Karakoram wildlife sanctuary in Ladakh was received by the central government.
Location: It is located in the union territory of Ladakh along the territory’s border with Jammu and Kashmir.
It is situated just to the north of Hemis National Park and to the east of Deosai National Park.
Terrain: It is well known for its diverse landscape, featuring snow-covered peaks, alpine fields, and deep ravines.
Climatic condition: The average temperature during the warmest month is lower than 0 degrees Celsius in some heights and remains below 10 degrees Celsius in other parts.
Major Peaks: Major peaks within this Wildlife Sanctuary include Saltoro Kangri, Saser Kangri I, and K12.
Rivers:Shyok and Nubra Rivers are the major water sources of this sanctuary.
Vegetation: It is rich in alpine vegetation, medicinal plants, cold desert flora, endemic and rare species, and glacier vegetation.
Fauna: Ural, the argali, Tibetan gazelle, Siberian ibex, the bharal (blue sheep), and the snow leopard, Tibetan antelope (chiru) and Bactrian cameletc.
Flora: It comprises broad-leaved shrubs namely the Rosia webbiana, Ephedra, Caragianae and several other bushes.
Recently, a proposal of redrawing the boundaries and expanse of the Karakoram wildlife sanctuary in Ladakh was received by the central government.
Location: It is located in the union territory of Ladakh along the territory’s border with Jammu and Kashmir.
It is situated just to the north of Hemis National Park and to the east of Deosai National Park.
Terrain: It is well known for its diverse landscape, featuring snow-covered peaks, alpine fields, and deep ravines.
Climatic condition: The average temperature during the warmest month is lower than 0 degrees Celsius in some heights and remains below 10 degrees Celsius in other parts.
Major Peaks: Major peaks within this Wildlife Sanctuary include Saltoro Kangri, Saser Kangri I, and K12.
Rivers:Shyok and Nubra Rivers are the major water sources of this sanctuary.
Vegetation: It is rich in alpine vegetation, medicinal plants, cold desert flora, endemic and rare species, and glacier vegetation.
Fauna: Ural, the argali, Tibetan gazelle, Siberian ibex, the bharal (blue sheep), and the snow leopard, Tibetan antelope (chiru) and Bactrian cameletc.
Flora: It comprises broad-leaved shrubs namely the Rosia webbiana, Ephedra, Caragianae and several other bushes.
Q10.Consider the following statements regarding Cloud Seeding:
It is a weather-modification technique used to modify suitable clouds with ‘seed’ particles to increase rainfall.
Under this technique clouds are injected with salts like silver iodide and potassium iodide.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, a small aircraft known as the Cessna 206H conducted a cloud seeding trial in Delhi amid the recent spike in air pollution.
It is a weather-modification technique used to modify suitable clouds with ‘seed’ particles to increase rainfall.
To artificially induce rain, clouds are usually injected with salts like silver iodide, potassium iodide, or sodium chloride, which is the ‘seed’.
These salts are expected to provide additional nuclei around which more cloud droplets can form.
They are dispersed into the cloud either using aircraft or through generators on the ground.
Meteorological requirements for Cloud Seeding
Sufficient moisture: The target clouds must contain an adequate amount of water vapour and liquid water to be condensed into precipitation.
Cloud characteristics: Clouds targeted for seeding must have sufficient vertical thickness.
For example, some cloud-seeding projects require clouds to be at least 1 kilometre thick.
Favourable winds: Wind direction must transport the seeding material toward the intended area and wind speed must not be so high that it prevents clouds from growing tall or blows the seeding agents away from the target zone.
Vertical air currents: Clouds with strong vertical updrafts are considered ideal because they help disperse the seeding agents and promote cloud development.
Recently, a small aircraft known as the Cessna 206H conducted a cloud seeding trial in Delhi amid the recent spike in air pollution.
It is a weather-modification technique used to modify suitable clouds with ‘seed’ particles to increase rainfall.
To artificially induce rain, clouds are usually injected with salts like silver iodide, potassium iodide, or sodium chloride, which is the ‘seed’.
These salts are expected to provide additional nuclei around which more cloud droplets can form.
They are dispersed into the cloud either using aircraft or through generators on the ground.
Meteorological requirements for Cloud Seeding
Sufficient moisture: The target clouds must contain an adequate amount of water vapour and liquid water to be condensed into precipitation.
Cloud characteristics: Clouds targeted for seeding must have sufficient vertical thickness.
For example, some cloud-seeding projects require clouds to be at least 1 kilometre thick.
Favourable winds: Wind direction must transport the seeding material toward the intended area and wind speed must not be so high that it prevents clouds from growing tall or blows the seeding agents away from the target zone.
Vertical air currents: Clouds with strong vertical updrafts are considered ideal because they help disperse the seeding agents and promote cloud development.
Ans. The Daily UPSC Quiz is a set of practice questions based on current affairs, static subjects, and PYQs that help aspirants enhance retention and test conceptual clarity regularly.
Q2. How is the Daily Quiz useful for UPSC preparation?+
Ans. Daily quizzes support learning, help in revision, improve time management, and boost accuracy for both UPSC Prelims and Mains through consistent practice.
Q3. Are the quiz questions based on the UPSC syllabus?+
Ans. Yes, all questions are aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, covering key areas like Polity, Economy, Environment, History, Geography, and Current Affairs.
Q4. Are solutions and explanations provided with the quiz?+
Ans. Yes, each quiz includes detailed explanations and source references to enhance conceptual understanding and enable self-assessment.
Q5. Is the Daily UPSC Quiz suitable for both Prelims and Mains?+
Ans. Primarily focused on Prelims (MCQ format), but it also indirectly helps in Mains by strengthening subject knowledge and factual clarity.
At Vajiram & Ravi, our team includes subject experts who have appeared for the UPSC Mains and the Interview stage. With their deep understanding of the exam, they create content that is clear, to the point, reliable, and helpful for aspirants.Their aim is to make even difficult topics easy to understand and directly useful for your UPSC preparation—whether it’s for Current Affairs, General Studies, or Optional subjects. Every note, article, or test is designed to save your time and boost your performance.
