Practice the Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi to increase your current affairs and concept clarity. Ideal for UPSC Prelims and Mains 2025 preparation. Stay updated, revise smarter, and track your progress.
The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions.
UPSC Daily Quiz 27 November 2025
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The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
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Consider the following statements regarding ‘Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets:
It aims to establish integrated Rare Earth Permanent Magnet (REPM) manufacturing in India.
It has total time duration of 7 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the ‘Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets’ with a financial outlay of Rs.7280 crore.
It aims to establish 6,000 Metric Tons per Annum (MTPA) of integrated Rare Earth Permanent Magnet (REPM) manufacturing in India.
It will support the creation of integrated REPM manufacturing facilities, involving conversion of rare earth oxides to metals, metals to alloys, and alloys to finished REPMs.
Features ofScheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets:
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the ‘Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets’ with a financial outlay of Rs.7280 crore.
It aims to establish 6,000 Metric Tons per Annum (MTPA) of integrated Rare Earth Permanent Magnet (REPM) manufacturing in India.
It will support the creation of integrated REPM manufacturing facilities, involving conversion of rare earth oxides to metals, metals to alloys, and alloys to finished REPMs.
Features ofScheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets:
Consider the following statements regarding the Young Stellar Objects:
These are stars in the earliest stages which reside within dense molecular clouds.
These are formed from the collapse of dense molecular clouds which are triggered by stellar radiation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, a team of researchers has decoded the early lives of young stars called Young Stellar Objects (YSO) using a decade of data from NASA satellites Wide-field Infrared Survey Explorer (WISE) and its extended mission NEOWISE.
These are stars in the earliest stages of their lives where stars stably fuse hydrogen in their cores.
This is the stage before the stars enter the main sequence of what is called the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram (a plot showing stars in various stages of evolution based on their temperature and brightness).
These objects typically reside within dense molecular clouds rich in gas and interstellar material.
Formation: YSOs form from the collapse of dense molecular clouds, triggered by events like nearby supernova explosions, stellar radiation, or turbulence in the interstellar medium.
Types: There are two principal kinds of YSOs: Protostars and Pre-main sequence stars.
Stages of Young Stellar Objects:
Class 0 and Class I phases: These are mostly visible in infrared and radio wavelengths due to their thick dust envelopes.
Class II and Class III: In this phase object becomes visible in optical wavelengths as it clears away its surrounding envelope.
Recently, a team of researchers has decoded the early lives of young stars called Young Stellar Objects (YSO) using a decade of data from NASA satellites Wide-field Infrared Survey Explorer (WISE) and its extended mission NEOWISE.
These are stars in the earliest stages of their lives where stars stably fuse hydrogen in their cores.
This is the stage before the stars enter the main sequence of what is called the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram (a plot showing stars in various stages of evolution based on their temperature and brightness).
These objects typically reside within dense molecular clouds rich in gas and interstellar material.
Formation: YSOs form from the collapse of dense molecular clouds, triggered by events like nearby supernova explosions, stellar radiation, or turbulence in the interstellar medium.
Types: There are two principal kinds of YSOs: Protostars and Pre-main sequence stars.
Stages of Young Stellar Objects:
Class 0 and Class I phases: These are mostly visible in infrared and radio wavelengths due to their thick dust envelopes.
Class II and Class III: In this phase object becomes visible in optical wavelengths as it clears away its surrounding envelope.
Consider the following statements regarding Entrepreneur-in-Residence (EIR) Programme:
It aims to encourage graduate students to take to entrepreneurship as a prospective career option.
It is implemented by the Ministry of Skills and Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the Union Minister of State for Science & Technology said that Entrepreneur-in-Residence (EIR) Programme is gaining popularity among young startups, innovators.
It is one of the programs introduced under National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI).
It aims to encourage graduate students to take to entrepreneurship as a prospective career option by providing financial and non-financial support in the form of a fellowship.
Features of Entrepreneur-in-Residence (EIR) Programme
Financial Support: Recipient is eligible to get financial support of up to INR 30,000/- monthly.
It is offered to graduate students for a maximum period of 12 months.
The Programme includes access to the infrastructure facilities at the TBI, mentoring support and guidance, technical and financial advice, industry connections
Implementation: It is implemented by the of Science and Technology, Govt. of India in association with NCL Venture Centre, Pune.
Recently, the Union Minister of State for Science & Technology said that Entrepreneur-in-Residence (EIR) Programme is gaining popularity among young startups, innovators.
It is one of the programs introduced under National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI).
It aims to encourage graduate students to take to entrepreneurship as a prospective career option by providing financial and non-financial support in the form of a fellowship.
Features of Entrepreneur-in-Residence (EIR) Programme
Financial Support: Recipient is eligible to get financial support of up to INR 30,000/- monthly.
It is offered to graduate students for a maximum period of 12 months.
The Programme includes access to the infrastructure facilities at the TBI, mentoring support and guidance, technical and financial advice, industry connections
Implementation: It is implemented by the of Science and Technology, Govt. of India in association with NCL Venture Centre, Pune.
With reference to Finn’s Weaver bird, consider the following:
It is native to the Ganges and Brahmaputra valleys in India and Nepal.
It builds its nests on tall grass and trees.
It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, Ornithologists alerted that the Finn’s Weaver bird is silently disappearing from the marshy lowlands of the Terai region in India.
Finn’s weaver (Ploceus megarhynchus ) are also known as Finn’s baya and yellow weaveris a weaver bird species.
The weaver bird was named Finn’s Weaver after Frank Finn, the British officer.
Distribution: It is native to the Ganges and Brahmaputra valleys in India and Nepal.
Habitat: They live close to dams and reservoirs. Water, marshy soil, tall grasses, Semal (silk cotton) and Shisham (rosewood) trees make up its natural habitat.
These birds build their nests on tall grass and these trees.
Diet: Weaver birds are largely granivorous birds, with adults feeding mainly on seeds, supplemented with invertebrates
Threats: Human activities including expansion of agriculture, grass cutting, construction work, residential buildings, and increase in industrial units across the Terai has disrupted the natural habitat of these birds.
Recently, Ornithologists alerted that the Finn’s Weaver bird is silently disappearing from the marshy lowlands of the Terai region in India.
Finn’s weaver (Ploceus megarhynchus ) are also known as Finn’s baya and yellow weaveris a weaver bird species.
The weaver bird was named Finn’s Weaver after Frank Finn, the British officer.
Distribution: It is native to the Ganges and Brahmaputra valleys in India and Nepal.
Habitat: They live close to dams and reservoirs. Water, marshy soil, tall grasses, Semal (silk cotton) and Shisham (rosewood) trees make up its natural habitat.
These birds build their nests on tall grass and these trees.
Diet: Weaver birds are largely granivorous birds, with adults feeding mainly on seeds, supplemented with invertebrates
Threats: Human activities including expansion of agriculture, grass cutting, construction work, residential buildings, and increase in industrial units across the Terai has disrupted the natural habitat of these birds.
Consider the following statements regarding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis:
It is a progressive neurological disorder that affects muscle movement in humans.
It occurs only in old age people due to weakening of muscles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
A research paper highlighted that number of cases of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) in the world will increase from 222,801 in 2015 to 376,674 in 2040, representing an increase of 69%.
It is also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease, is a progressive neurological disorder that affects muscle movement.
It can occur at any age but symptoms commonly develop between the age of 55 and 75, with men more than women likely to develop the condition.
Causes: In few people with ALS, a genetic cause can be identified. For the rest, the cause is not known.
How does ALS affect the body?
In people with ALS, the motor neurons degenerate and die and messages sent by the brain do not reach the muscles which results into muscles atrophy (lose strength and become weak).
Eventually, the brain loses control over voluntary movements including walking, chewing and even breathing, as the condition progresses.
Symptoms and progression of ALS:
It includes muscle twitches in the arms, leg, shoulders or tongue; muscle cramps;
Tightness or stiffness of muscles; muscle weakness in a limb or the neck; and difficulty in chewing or swallowing.
Treatment for Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis:
There is no treatment to reverse nerve degeneration, but some therapy may help to delay progression.
A treatment would include physical, occupational and speech therapy to improve quality of life.
A research paper highlighted that number of cases of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) in the world will increase from 222,801 in 2015 to 376,674 in 2040, representing an increase of 69%.
It is also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease, is a progressive neurological disorder that affects muscle movement.
It can occur at any age but symptoms commonly develop between the age of 55 and 75, with men more than women likely to develop the condition.
Causes: In few people with ALS, a genetic cause can be identified. For the rest, the cause is not known.
How does ALS affect the body?
In people with ALS, the motor neurons degenerate and die and messages sent by the brain do not reach the muscles which results into muscles atrophy (lose strength and become weak).
Eventually, the brain loses control over voluntary movements including walking, chewing and even breathing, as the condition progresses.
Symptoms and progression of ALS:
It includes muscle twitches in the arms, leg, shoulders or tongue; muscle cramps;
Tightness or stiffness of muscles; muscle weakness in a limb or the neck; and difficulty in chewing or swallowing.
Treatment for Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis:
There is no treatment to reverse nerve degeneration, but some therapy may help to delay progression.
A treatment would include physical, occupational and speech therapy to improve quality of life.
Consider the following statements regarding Euthanasia:
Euthanasia is defined as the hastening of death of a patient to prevent further sufferings.
Active euthanasia refers to withholding or withdrawing treatment which is necessary for maintaining life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Supreme Court recently asked the Noida district hospital to constitute a primary medical board to examine the option of passive euthanasia for a 31-year-old who has been in a vegetative state for over a decade because of quadriplegia.
About Euthanasia:
The word ‘Euthanasia’ is derived from the Greek, ‘Eu’ meaning ‘good’ and ‘thanatos’ meaning ‘death’, put together it means ‘good death’.
Euthanasia is defined as the hastening of death of a patient to prevent further sufferings.
Types:
Active euthanasia refers to the physician’s deliberate act, usually the administration of lethal drugs, to end an incurably or terminally ill patient’s life.
There are three types of active euthanasia in relation to giving consent for euthanasia, namely
voluntary euthanasia – at patient request,
nonvoluntary – without patient consent,
involuntary euthanasia – the patient is not in a position to give consent.
Passive euthanasia refers to withholding or withdrawing treatment which is necessary for maintaining life.
Common conditions which make patients seek euthanasia are terminally ill cancer patients, acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), and other terminally ill conditions where there is no active treatment.
Legality:
Passive euthanasia is generally accepted worldwide.
Active involuntary euthanasia is illegal in almost all countries.
Practicing active voluntary euthanasia is illegal and considered criminal homicide in most of the countries.
Legality in India:
Passive Euthanasia:
A five-judge bench of the Supreme Court in Common Cause vs. Union of India (2018)recognised a person’s right to die with dignity.
It said that a terminally ill person can opt for passive euthanasia and execute a living will to refuse medical treatment.
The Court permitted an individual to draft a living will specifying that she or he will not be put on life support if they slip into an incurable coma.
The Court recognised the right to die with dignity as a fundamental right and an aspect of Article 21 (Right to Life).
Active euthanasia: In India, active euthanasia is a crime.
The Supreme Court recently asked the Noida district hospital to constitute a primary medical board to examine the option of passive euthanasia for a 31-year-old who has been in a vegetative state for over a decade because of quadriplegia.
About Euthanasia:
The word ‘Euthanasia’ is derived from the Greek, ‘Eu’ meaning ‘good’ and ‘thanatos’ meaning ‘death’, put together it means ‘good death’.
Euthanasia is defined as the hastening of death of a patient to prevent further sufferings.
Types:
Active euthanasia refers to the physician’s deliberate act, usually the administration of lethal drugs, to end an incurably or terminally ill patient’s life.
There are three types of active euthanasia in relation to giving consent for euthanasia, namely
voluntary euthanasia – at patient request,
nonvoluntary – without patient consent,
involuntary euthanasia – the patient is not in a position to give consent.
Passive euthanasia refers to withholding or withdrawing treatment which is necessary for maintaining life.
Common conditions which make patients seek euthanasia are terminally ill cancer patients, acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), and other terminally ill conditions where there is no active treatment.
Legality:
Passive euthanasia is generally accepted worldwide.
Active involuntary euthanasia is illegal in almost all countries.
Practicing active voluntary euthanasia is illegal and considered criminal homicide in most of the countries.
Legality in India:
Passive Euthanasia:
A five-judge bench of the Supreme Court in Common Cause vs. Union of India (2018)recognised a person’s right to die with dignity.
It said that a terminally ill person can opt for passive euthanasia and execute a living will to refuse medical treatment.
The Court permitted an individual to draft a living will specifying that she or he will not be put on life support if they slip into an incurable coma.
The Court recognised the right to die with dignity as a fundamental right and an aspect of Article 21 (Right to Life).
Active euthanasia: In India, active euthanasia is a crime.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Astronomical Union (IAU):
It is the only organization recognized professionally for the naming of astronomical bodies.
It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
A 3.5-billion-year-old Martian crater has been named after pioneering Indian geologist M.S. Krishnan, following the International Astronomical Union’s (IAU’s) approval of this and several other Kerala-proposed names for Martian landforms.
About International Astronomical Union (IAU):
It was founded in 1919 as a senior body governing international professional astronomical activities
Its mission is to promote and safeguard the science of astronomy in all its aspects, including research, communication, education, and development, through international cooperation.
Activities:
Definition of fundamental astronomical and dynamical constants and unambiguous astronomical nomenclature
Rapid dissemination of new discoveries
Organization of international observing campaigns
Promotion of educational activities in astronomy to early informal discussions of possible future international large-scale facilities.
It is the only organization recognized professionally for the naming of astronomical bodies, which it does solely on the basis of merit, history, or discoverer’s privilege.
The IAU holds a general assembly every three years in varying parts of the world. The long-term policy of the IAU is defined by the General Assembly.
Headquarters: Paris, France.
A key activity of the IAU is the organization of scientific meetings. Every year the IAU sponsors 9 international IAU Symposia.
Membership:
Its individual Members — structured into Divisions, Commissions, and Working Groups — are professional astronomers from all over the world, at the Ph.D. level and beyond, who are active in professional research, education and outreach in astronomy.
The IAU also has Junior Members.
The IAU has a total membership of 12742.
These members are labeled as “active” in the IAU database, meaning they have a valid email (are able to vote and stay connected to the IAU activities) and are affiliated to at least one Division.
IAU membership spans 92 countries. Out of those countries, 85 are National Members.
A 3.5-billion-year-old Martian crater has been named after pioneering Indian geologist M.S. Krishnan, following the International Astronomical Union’s (IAU’s) approval of this and several other Kerala-proposed names for Martian landforms.
About International Astronomical Union (IAU):
It was founded in 1919 as a senior body governing international professional astronomical activities
Its mission is to promote and safeguard the science of astronomy in all its aspects, including research, communication, education, and development, through international cooperation.
Activities:
Definition of fundamental astronomical and dynamical constants and unambiguous astronomical nomenclature
Rapid dissemination of new discoveries
Organization of international observing campaigns
Promotion of educational activities in astronomy to early informal discussions of possible future international large-scale facilities.
It is the only organization recognized professionally for the naming of astronomical bodies, which it does solely on the basis of merit, history, or discoverer’s privilege.
The IAU holds a general assembly every three years in varying parts of the world. The long-term policy of the IAU is defined by the General Assembly.
Headquarters: Paris, France.
A key activity of the IAU is the organization of scientific meetings. Every year the IAU sponsors 9 international IAU Symposia.
Membership:
Its individual Members — structured into Divisions, Commissions, and Working Groups — are professional astronomers from all over the world, at the Ph.D. level and beyond, who are active in professional research, education and outreach in astronomy.
The IAU also has Junior Members.
The IAU has a total membership of 12742.
These members are labeled as “active” in the IAU database, meaning they have a valid email (are able to vote and stay connected to the IAU activities) and are affiliated to at least one Division.
IAU membership spans 92 countries. Out of those countries, 85 are National Members.
The Bnei Menashe community, recently seen in the news, primarily hails from which Indian states?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Israel’s government recently approved a proposal to bring all the remaining 5,800 Jews from India’s north-eastern region, commonly referred to as Bnei Menashe, over the next five years.
About Bnei Menashe:
Bnei Menashe is an ethnic community that hails from the northeastern states of Mizoram and Manipur.
They claim to be the descendants of the biblical tribe of Manasseh, considered one of the “lost tribes” of Israel.
They are Christians converted into Jews and observe traditional Jewish practices and celebrate holidays such as Sukkot.
Historians believe this community may have arrived in India within the last 300–500 years.
Their ancestors were exiled long before the Roman dispersion, but they continued to practice Judaism across the generations, even if not in a contemporary Orthodox way.
Once they came into contact with Israel and global Jewry in the 1980s, they embraced modern Jewish learning and practice.
Nearly half of the ‘Bnei Menashe’ population migrated to Israel over a period of time and became its citizens.
According to the recent Israeli Government plan, approximately 1,200 community members are expected to immigrate to Israel by the end of 2026.
A second stage, slated for completion by 2030, will bring an additional 4,600 people, effectively completing the arrival of the entire community.
Israel’s government recently approved a proposal to bring all the remaining 5,800 Jews from India’s north-eastern region, commonly referred to as Bnei Menashe, over the next five years.
About Bnei Menashe:
Bnei Menashe is an ethnic community that hails from the northeastern states of Mizoram and Manipur.
They claim to be the descendants of the biblical tribe of Manasseh, considered one of the “lost tribes” of Israel.
They are Christians converted into Jews and observe traditional Jewish practices and celebrate holidays such as Sukkot.
Historians believe this community may have arrived in India within the last 300–500 years.
Their ancestors were exiled long before the Roman dispersion, but they continued to practice Judaism across the generations, even if not in a contemporary Orthodox way.
Once they came into contact with Israel and global Jewry in the 1980s, they embraced modern Jewish learning and practice.
Nearly half of the ‘Bnei Menashe’ population migrated to Israel over a period of time and became its citizens.
According to the recent Israeli Government plan, approximately 1,200 community members are expected to immigrate to Israel by the end of 2026.
A second stage, slated for completion by 2030, will bring an additional 4,600 people, effectively completing the arrival of the entire community.
The Mekedatu Dam Project is expected to supply water for drinking purposes to which city?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Karnataka government decided that it would submit a “revised” Detailed Project Report (DPR) to the Centre on the Mekedatu balancing reservoir across the interstate river Cauvery.
About Mekedatu Dam Project:
It is a multi-purpose (drinking water and power) project involving the construction of a balancing reservoir near Kanakapura in the Ramanagara district, Karnataka.
It is about 90 km away from Bengaluru and 4 km ahead of the border with Tamil Nadu.
The project is proposed at the confluence of the Cauvery River with its tributary Arkavathi.
The plan involves building a 99-metre-high, 735-metre-long concrete gravity dam, an underground powerhouse, and a water conductor system.
While the dam will have a capacity of holding about 66 thousand million cubic feet (tmcft) of water, it would generate 400 MW of hydroelectricity once operational.
Once completed, it is expected to supply over 4 TMC (thousand million cubic feet) of water to Bengaluru city for drinking purposes.
Issue:
Tamil Nadu, the lower riparian state, has been opposing the project, raising apprehensions that the state would be affected if the project takes shape.
Tamil Nadu says,Mekedatu area represents the last free point in Karnataka from where Cauvery water flows unrestricted into Tamil Nadu, and the Mekedatu dam project is an attempt by Karnataka to block this free flow of water.
Recently, the Karnataka government decided that it would submit a “revised” Detailed Project Report (DPR) to the Centre on the Mekedatu balancing reservoir across the interstate river Cauvery.
About Mekedatu Dam Project:
It is a multi-purpose (drinking water and power) project involving the construction of a balancing reservoir near Kanakapura in the Ramanagara district, Karnataka.
It is about 90 km away from Bengaluru and 4 km ahead of the border with Tamil Nadu.
The project is proposed at the confluence of the Cauvery River with its tributary Arkavathi.
The plan involves building a 99-metre-high, 735-metre-long concrete gravity dam, an underground powerhouse, and a water conductor system.
While the dam will have a capacity of holding about 66 thousand million cubic feet (tmcft) of water, it would generate 400 MW of hydroelectricity once operational.
Once completed, it is expected to supply over 4 TMC (thousand million cubic feet) of water to Bengaluru city for drinking purposes.
Issue:
Tamil Nadu, the lower riparian state, has been opposing the project, raising apprehensions that the state would be affected if the project takes shape.
Tamil Nadu says,Mekedatu area represents the last free point in Karnataka from where Cauvery water flows unrestricted into Tamil Nadu, and the Mekedatu dam project is an attempt by Karnataka to block this free flow of water.
Ans. The Daily UPSC Quiz is a set of practice questions based on current affairs, static subjects, and PYQs that help aspirants enhance retention and test conceptual clarity regularly.
Q2. How is the Daily Quiz useful for UPSC preparation?+
Ans. Daily quizzes support learning, help in revision, improve time management, and boost accuracy for both UPSC Prelims and Mains through consistent practice.
Q3. Are the quiz questions based on the UPSC syllabus?+
Ans. Yes, all questions are aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, covering key areas like Polity, Economy, Environment, History, Geography, and Current Affairs.
Q4. Are solutions and explanations provided with the quiz?+
Ans. Yes, each quiz includes detailed explanations and source references to enhance conceptual understanding and enable self-assessment.
Q5. Is the Daily UPSC Quiz suitable for both Prelims and Mains?+
Ans. Primarily focused on Prelims (MCQ format), but it also indirectly helps in Mains by strengthening subject knowledge and factual clarity.
At Vajiram & Ravi, our team includes subject experts who have appeared for the UPSC Mains and the Interview stage. With their deep understanding of the exam, they create content that is clear, to the point, reliable, and helpful for aspirants.Their aim is to make even difficult topics easy to understand and directly useful for your UPSC preparation—whether it’s for Current Affairs, General Studies, or Optional subjects. Every note, article, or test is designed to save your time and boost your performance.
