UPSC Daily Quiz 28 March 2026
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Vajiram & Ravi’s Daily UPSC Quiz is designed to help aspirants strengthen their preparation by focusing on current affairs and concepts from the UPSC Syllabus 2026 for both Prelims & Mains. It allows candidates to revise important topics while regularly assessing their understanding and progress. Practicing these quizzes daily can improve accuracy, speed, and problem-solving skills. This consistent practice also enhances confidence in tackling exam-level questions. Overall, it is a valuable tool for both UPSC Prelims preparation and Mains revision.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsEuthalia zubeengargi, recently in news, is a:
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
Recently, a new butterfly species was recorded in Arunachal Pradesh and named it as Euthalia zubeengargi.
- It is a butterfly species was discovered in Arunachal Pradesh.
- Habitat: It is found in semi-evergreen forests at elevations of 600-750 metres
- It belongs to the genus Euthalia, a group commonly found across South and Southeast Asia. Appearance: Members of this group are typically seen in forested habitats and are known for their earthy brown wings marked with pale spots.
- It prefers cool, shaded forest interiors.
- The butterfly rests on low vegetation, feeding on tree sap and occasionally gathering minerals from damp surfaces near streams.
- It appears to be active mainly from late morning to early afternoon, making short, slow flights between nearby plants
- Euthalia zubeengargi is one of more than 80 species from this group recorded in India’s northeastern region.
- Ecological Significance of butterfly: These are valuable indicators of the environment, whose health can influence their presence, abundance, and diversity.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/new-butterfly-species-recorded-in-arunachal-named-after-zubeen-garg/article70791708.ece
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
Recently, a new butterfly species was recorded in Arunachal Pradesh and named it as Euthalia zubeengargi.
- It is a butterfly species was discovered in Arunachal Pradesh.
- Habitat: It is found in semi-evergreen forests at elevations of 600-750 metres
- It belongs to the genus Euthalia, a group commonly found across South and Southeast Asia. Appearance: Members of this group are typically seen in forested habitats and are known for their earthy brown wings marked with pale spots.
- It prefers cool, shaded forest interiors.
- The butterfly rests on low vegetation, feeding on tree sap and occasionally gathering minerals from damp surfaces near streams.
- It appears to be active mainly from late morning to early afternoon, making short, slow flights between nearby plants
- Euthalia zubeengargi is one of more than 80 species from this group recorded in India’s northeastern region.
- Ecological Significance of butterfly: These are valuable indicators of the environment, whose health can influence their presence, abundance, and diversity.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/new-butterfly-species-recorded-in-arunachal-named-after-zubeen-garg/article70791708.ece
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Consumer Protection Authority:
- It was established under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
- It was established under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Central Consumer Protection Authority directed hotels and restaurants not to levy additional charges, such as LPG charges and fuel cost recovery, on consumers.
- It was established under Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
- The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which replaced the 1986 Act, was notified on August 9, 2019, and came into force on July 20, 2020.
- Nodal Ministry:Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
- Functions and Powers of CCPA:
- The CCPA protects, promotes, and enforces the rights of consumers as a class under the Act.
- It prevents unfair trade practicesand curbs false or misleading advertisements.
- It ensures that no one publishes or disseminates false or misleading advertisements.
- It can initiate class-action suits, including recall, refunds, and cancellation of licenses, when necessary.
- The CCPA can conduct inquiries and investigations through its Investigation Wing, headed by a Director-General.
- It can order the discontinuation of unfair practices, impose penalties on errant businesses, and enforce consumer welfare measures.
- Composition of CCPA:
- A Chief Commissioner heads the CCPA and has two other commissioners:
- One commissioner deals with goods-related issues.
- The other commissioner handles service-related complaints.
Hence both statements are correct
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/ccpa-bars-hotels-restaurants-from-levying-extra-charges/
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Central Consumer Protection Authority directed hotels and restaurants not to levy additional charges, such as LPG charges and fuel cost recovery, on consumers.
- It was established under Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
- The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which replaced the 1986 Act, was notified on August 9, 2019, and came into force on July 20, 2020.
- Nodal Ministry:Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
- Functions and Powers of CCPA:
- The CCPA protects, promotes, and enforces the rights of consumers as a class under the Act.
- It prevents unfair trade practicesand curbs false or misleading advertisements.
- It ensures that no one publishes or disseminates false or misleading advertisements.
- It can initiate class-action suits, including recall, refunds, and cancellation of licenses, when necessary.
- The CCPA can conduct inquiries and investigations through its Investigation Wing, headed by a Director-General.
- It can order the discontinuation of unfair practices, impose penalties on errant businesses, and enforce consumer welfare measures.
- Composition of CCPA:
- A Chief Commissioner heads the CCPA and has two other commissioners:
- One commissioner deals with goods-related issues.
- The other commissioner handles service-related complaints.
Hence both statements are correct
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/ccpa-bars-hotels-restaurants-from-levying-extra-charges/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding SWOT Satellite:
- It collects detailed measurements of water bodies on Earth change over time.
- It was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, NASA has developed a new map of the ocean floor by using satellite data from SWOT Satellite.
- The Surface Water and Ocean Topography (SWOT) satellite was launched in 2022.
- It is a joint mission of NASA and CNES (French Space Agency).
- Objective: Satellite will collect detailed measurements of how water bodies on Earth change over time.
- Features SWOT Satellite:
- It uses a specialised instrument called the Ka-band Radar Interferometer (KaRIn) to measure the height, width, and elevation of surface water bodies such as rivers, lakes, reservoirs, and oceans.
- SWOT offers high spatial resolutionby bouncing microwaves off water surfaces and calculating return time, allowing dynamic water movement tracking.
- The satellite covers over 55% of large-scale global floods during their lifecycle through frequent Earth orbits.
- The satellite circles Earth and can scan about 90 per cent of the planet every 21 days
- Functions of SWOT Satellite:
- It is equipped to observe the entire length of nearly all rivers wider than 330 feet and more than 1 million lakes and reservoirs larger than 5 acres.
- It will precisely measure fine differences in surface elevations around smaller currents and eddies, where much the oceans’ drawdown of heat and carbon is believed to occur.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, NASA has developed a new map of the ocean floor by using satellite data from SWOT Satellite.
- The Surface Water and Ocean Topography (SWOT) satellite was launched in 2022.
- It is a joint mission of NASA and CNES (French Space Agency).
- Objective: Satellite will collect detailed measurements of how water bodies on Earth change over time.
- Features SWOT Satellite:
- It uses a specialised instrument called the Ka-band Radar Interferometer (KaRIn) to measure the height, width, and elevation of surface water bodies such as rivers, lakes, reservoirs, and oceans.
- SWOT offers high spatial resolutionby bouncing microwaves off water surfaces and calculating return time, allowing dynamic water movement tracking.
- The satellite covers over 55% of large-scale global floods during their lifecycle through frequent Earth orbits.
- The satellite circles Earth and can scan about 90 per cent of the planet every 21 days
- Functions of SWOT Satellite:
- It is equipped to observe the entire length of nearly all rivers wider than 330 feet and more than 1 million lakes and reservoirs larger than 5 acres.
- It will precisely measure fine differences in surface elevations around smaller currents and eddies, where much the oceans’ drawdown of heat and carbon is believed to occur.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding P8I Aircraft:
- It can conduct anti-submarine warfare and anti-surface warfare missions.
- It is manufactured by Boeing for the Indian Navy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Ministry of Defence has signed contracts for the procurement of Tunguska Air Defence Missile System and Inspection (Depot Level) of P8I Long-Range Maritime Reconnaissance Aircraft.
- It is manufactured by Boeing (a U.S. aerospace company) for the Indian Navy.
- It replaced the ageing fleet of the Indian Navy’s Tupolev Tu-142 aircraft.
- The P-8I Poseidon flown by the Indian Navy is a variant of the P-8A Poseidon used by the United States Navy.
- Features of P8I Aircraft:
- It has advanced sensors, weapons systems, and long-range capabilities enable it to detect and respond to a wide range of threats, from submarines and surface vessels to environmental challenges.
- It can conduct anti-submarine warfare (ASW), anti-surface warfare (AsuW), intelligence, maritime patrol, and surveillance and reconnaissance missions.
- Carrying Capacity: The maximum take-off gross weight of the P-8I is 85,139 kg.
- Speed: It can fly at a maximum speed of 789 km/h and can reach a maximum altitude of 12,496 m.
- It has a maximum range of over 2,222 kilometres with a time on station of four hours.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2246008®=3&lang=1
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Ministry of Defence has signed contracts for the procurement of Tunguska Air Defence Missile System and Inspection (Depot Level) of P8I Long-Range Maritime Reconnaissance Aircraft.
- It is manufactured by Boeing (a U.S. aerospace company) for the Indian Navy.
- It replaced the ageing fleet of the Indian Navy’s Tupolev Tu-142 aircraft.
- The P-8I Poseidon flown by the Indian Navy is a variant of the P-8A Poseidon used by the United States Navy.
- Features of P8I Aircraft:
- It has advanced sensors, weapons systems, and long-range capabilities enable it to detect and respond to a wide range of threats, from submarines and surface vessels to environmental challenges.
- It can conduct anti-submarine warfare (ASW), anti-surface warfare (AsuW), intelligence, maritime patrol, and surveillance and reconnaissance missions.
- Carrying Capacity: The maximum take-off gross weight of the P-8I is 85,139 kg.
- Speed: It can fly at a maximum speed of 789 km/h and can reach a maximum altitude of 12,496 m.
- It has a maximum range of over 2,222 kilometres with a time on station of four hours.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2246008®=3&lang=1
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Rural Self Employment Training Institutes:
- These institutes provide short-duration residential training programs for unemployed rural youth aged 18–50 years.
- These are functioning through a unique partnership between banks and government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Minister of State, Ministry of Rural Development, informed the Rajya Sabha, highlighted the significant role of Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs).
- The Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs) are empowering rural youth through skill development and entrepreneurship promotion
- RSETIs have emerged as key institutions with a wide national outreach, providing free residential training and facilitating sustainable livelihoods for rural youth.
- These are functioning through a unique partnership between banks and government,
- One RSETI is established in every district in the country. Concerned bank is the lead bank in the district takes responsibility for creating and managing it.
- Eligibility: RSETIs provide short-duration, practical, and residential training programs for unemployed rural youth aged 18–50 years.
- The institutes offer 73 NSQF-aligned courses across sectors such as: Agriculture, Manufacturing, Services and Entrepreneurship Development Programs (EDPs)
- Progress: Currently, 632 RSETIs are operational across 619 districts in 33 States/UTs, sponsored by 25 banks
- These institutes not only impart skills but also ensure post-training support through handholding and credit linkage.
- Recognition of RSETI trainees: Certificates issued by an RSETI will be recognised by all banks for purposes of extending credit to the trainees.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2246334®=3&lang=1
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Minister of State, Ministry of Rural Development, informed the Rajya Sabha, highlighted the significant role of Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs).
- The Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs) are empowering rural youth through skill development and entrepreneurship promotion
- RSETIs have emerged as key institutions with a wide national outreach, providing free residential training and facilitating sustainable livelihoods for rural youth.
- These are functioning through a unique partnership between banks and government,
- One RSETI is established in every district in the country. Concerned bank is the lead bank in the district takes responsibility for creating and managing it.
- Eligibility: RSETIs provide short-duration, practical, and residential training programs for unemployed rural youth aged 18–50 years.
- The institutes offer 73 NSQF-aligned courses across sectors such as: Agriculture, Manufacturing, Services and Entrepreneurship Development Programs (EDPs)
- Progress: Currently, 632 RSETIs are operational across 619 districts in 33 States/UTs, sponsored by 25 banks
- These institutes not only impart skills but also ensure post-training support through handholding and credit linkage.
- Recognition of RSETI trainees: Certificates issued by an RSETI will be recognised by all banks for purposes of extending credit to the trainees.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2246334®=3&lang=1
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Steppe Eagle, consider the following:
- It is the only eagle to nest primarily on the ground.
- It is only found in Europe region.
- It is categorized as endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, western part of Rajastan has been recognised as a stronghold of the Steppe Eagle, a magnificent raptor that winters in the state.
- It is a member of the subfamily Aquilinae, also known as the “booted eagles”.
- Appearance The Steppe eagle is a large, bulky, and robust-looking eagle. It is mainly dark brown in color with a longish but very thick neck and a relatively small head
- Habitat:It is found in steppe, desert, semi-desert, open savanna, pastures, agricultural fields, paddy fields, grassland, and open woodland.
- Distribution: It is mainly found in Europe, Asia, and Africa
- It is a specialized predator of ground squirrels on the breeding ground.
- It is the only eagle to nest primarily on the ground.
- It mainly breeds in central Asian countries, including Kazakhstan, Russia, and Mongolia, it undertakes an annual southward migration as temperatures drop.
- Diet: Steppe eagles are carnivores and prey mainly on small-sized mammals, with some birds (such as queleas) and reptiles and
- Threats: The major threats to the Steppe eagle include habitat loss, persecution, wildfires, predation (and trampling by cattle) of chicks.
- Conservation Status:
- IUCN Red List: Endangered
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/amp/story/wildlife-biodiversity/western-rajasthan-now-a-bastion-of-the-steppe-eagle
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, western part of Rajastan has been recognised as a stronghold of the Steppe Eagle, a magnificent raptor that winters in the state.
- It is a member of the subfamily Aquilinae, also known as the “booted eagles”.
- Appearance The Steppe eagle is a large, bulky, and robust-looking eagle. It is mainly dark brown in color with a longish but very thick neck and a relatively small head
- Habitat:It is found in steppe, desert, semi-desert, open savanna, pastures, agricultural fields, paddy fields, grassland, and open woodland.
- Distribution: It is mainly found in Europe, Asia, and Africa
- It is a specialized predator of ground squirrels on the breeding ground.
- It is the only eagle to nest primarily on the ground.
- It mainly breeds in central Asian countries, including Kazakhstan, Russia, and Mongolia, it undertakes an annual southward migration as temperatures drop.
- Diet: Steppe eagles are carnivores and prey mainly on small-sized mammals, with some birds (such as queleas) and reptiles and
- Threats: The major threats to the Steppe eagle include habitat loss, persecution, wildfires, predation (and trampling by cattle) of chicks.
- Conservation Status:
- IUCN Red List: Endangered
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/amp/story/wildlife-biodiversity/western-rajasthan-now-a-bastion-of-the-steppe-eagle
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Waste Foundry Sand:
- It is a byproduct from the production of both ferrous and nonferrous metal castings.
- Its chemical characteristic is depended upon the type of casting process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Institute of Indian Foundrymen (IIF) and CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI) entered into an agreement to develop and facilitate solutions for the utilisation of waste foundry sand in road construction.
- It is a byproduct from the production of both ferrous and nonferrous metal castings.
- It is high quality silica
- The physical and chemical characteristics of foundry sand depend upon the type of casting process and the type of industries.
- Classification of foundry sands depends upon the type of binder systems used in metal casting.
- Two types of binder systems are generally used, and on the basis of that foundry sands are categorized as: clay-bonded sands (green sand) and chemically bonded sands.
- Clay-bonded (Green) sand is composed of naturally occurring materials which are blended together; high quality silica sand (85–95%), bentonite clay (4–10%) as a binder
- Chemically bonded sands are used both in core making where high strengths are necessary to withstand the heat of molten metal, and in mold making.
- Waste Foundry Sand poses environmental challenges due to its large-scale generation and disposal requirements.
- Significance: Its reuse aligns with national priorities on resource efficiency, waste minimization, and sustainable development.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2245715®=3&lang=1
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Institute of Indian Foundrymen (IIF) and CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI) entered into an agreement to develop and facilitate solutions for the utilisation of waste foundry sand in road construction.
- It is a byproduct from the production of both ferrous and nonferrous metal castings.
- It is high quality silica
- The physical and chemical characteristics of foundry sand depend upon the type of casting process and the type of industries.
- Classification of foundry sands depends upon the type of binder systems used in metal casting.
- Two types of binder systems are generally used, and on the basis of that foundry sands are categorized as: clay-bonded sands (green sand) and chemically bonded sands.
- Clay-bonded (Green) sand is composed of naturally occurring materials which are blended together; high quality silica sand (85–95%), bentonite clay (4–10%) as a binder
- Chemically bonded sands are used both in core making where high strengths are necessary to withstand the heat of molten metal, and in mold making.
- Waste Foundry Sand poses environmental challenges due to its large-scale generation and disposal requirements.
- Significance: Its reuse aligns with national priorities on resource efficiency, waste minimization, and sustainable development.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2245715®=3&lang=1
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary:
- It is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
- It is part of the Krishna estuary, where the Coringa river confluences into the Bay of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the officials of the Wildlife Management Authority and Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary have conserved nearly 20,000 eggs of Olive Ridley Turtles on Hope Island.
- Location: It is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
- It is part of the Godavari estuary, where the Coringa river confluences into the Bay of Bengal.
- It was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1978.
- Vegetation: It has extensive mangrove and dry deciduous tropical forests. It is the second-largest stretch of mangrove forests in India.
- Flora: Mangrove plants like Rhizophora spp, Avicennia spp, Sonnertia spp, etc; grow here.
- Fauna: It is home to endangered mammals like Smooth Indian otter, Fishing cat, Jackal, etc. Mangroves offer excellent habitat for birds like Black capped kingfisher, Brahminy kite, Sea gulls, Reef heron, Sand piper, etc.
- The sea coast of the Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary is a breeding ground for Olive ridley turtles.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the officials of the Wildlife Management Authority and Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary have conserved nearly 20,000 eggs of Olive Ridley Turtles on Hope Island.
- Location: It is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
- It is part of the Godavari estuary, where the Coringa river confluences into the Bay of Bengal.
- It was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1978.
- Vegetation: It has extensive mangrove and dry deciduous tropical forests. It is the second-largest stretch of mangrove forests in India.
- Flora: Mangrove plants like Rhizophora spp, Avicennia spp, Sonnertia spp, etc; grow here.
- Fauna: It is home to endangered mammals like Smooth Indian otter, Fishing cat, Jackal, etc. Mangroves offer excellent habitat for birds like Black capped kingfisher, Brahminy kite, Sea gulls, Reef heron, Sand piper, etc.
- The sea coast of the Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary is a breeding ground for Olive ridley turtles.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Coffee, consider the following:
- It is a generally grown under shady trees.
- Kerala is the top producer of coffee in India.
- It grows well in well-drained, loamy soil containing a good deal of humus.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
India’s coffee exports to West Asian markets are now stranded at ports or slowly moving via the Strait of Hormuz which is impacting coffee exports.
- It is a tropical plant generally grown under shady trees.
- Types of Coffee: Robusta and Arabica
- Major Coffee growing states: It is largely cultivated in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha, among which, Karnataka produces the most with over 70% of the total output.
- Europe is the top destination for India’s coffee exports.
- The major countries which import the commodity from India include Italy, Germany, Belgium, Middle East nations, Korea, and Japan.
- Required Climatic Conditions for Coffee Cultivation
- It is grown on hill slopes at elevations from 600 to 1,600 metres above sea level.
- Climate: It requires a hot and humid climate for its growth.
- Temperature: 15°C and 28 °C
- Rainfall: It requires 150 to 250 cm of rainfall.
- Soil: Well-drained, loamy soil containing a good deal of humus and minerals like iron and calcium are ideal for coffee cultivation.
- Dry weather is necessary at the time of ripening of the berries.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader?utm_source=Hindu&utm_medium=Menu&utm_campaign=Header&_gl=1*vgq7g3*_gcl_au*NTU2OTM1NzczLjE3NzM3MTgwMjQuMTg5NDM5NTc0My4xNzc0NDkxNzg1LjE3NzQ0OTI2NDQ
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
India’s coffee exports to West Asian markets are now stranded at ports or slowly moving via the Strait of Hormuz which is impacting coffee exports.
- It is a tropical plant generally grown under shady trees.
- Types of Coffee: Robusta and Arabica
- Major Coffee growing states: It is largely cultivated in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha, among which, Karnataka produces the most with over 70% of the total output.
- Europe is the top destination for India’s coffee exports.
- The major countries which import the commodity from India include Italy, Germany, Belgium, Middle East nations, Korea, and Japan.
- Required Climatic Conditions for Coffee Cultivation
- It is grown on hill slopes at elevations from 600 to 1,600 metres above sea level.
- Climate: It requires a hot and humid climate for its growth.
- Temperature: 15°C and 28 °C
- Rainfall: It requires 150 to 250 cm of rainfall.
- Soil: Well-drained, loamy soil containing a good deal of humus and minerals like iron and calcium are ideal for coffee cultivation.
- Dry weather is necessary at the time of ripening of the berries.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader?utm_source=Hindu&utm_medium=Menu&utm_campaign=Header&_gl=1*vgq7g3*_gcl_au*NTU2OTM1NzczLjE3NzM3MTgwMjQuMTg5NDM5NTc0My4xNzc0NDkxNzg1LjE3NzQ0OTI2NDQ
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Keelback Snakes:
- These are typically non-venomous snakes.
- These are found in dry desert regions across the globe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Scientists from the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun documented the Rakhine Keelback (Herpetoreas davidi) in Ngengpui Wildlife Sanctuary, and the Kachin Hills Keelback (Hebius gilhodesi) in Namdapha National Park and Kamlang Tiger Reserve.
- Keelback snakes are typically non-venomous.
- Habitat: These are often found near water bodies such as streams and wetlands.
- Habitat: They are found in moist localities within wet and dry forest environments.
- Diet:Frogs, lizards and occasionally fish and tadpoles
- Features
- One of the most distinctive features of keelback snakes is their “keeled” scales.
- Each scale has a raised ridge running down its center, giving the snake’s skin a noticeably rough and textured feel.
- The keeled surface not only gives keelbacks a more rugged appearance but also helps with camouflage,
- As the texture can break up light reflections and allow them to blend more effectively into natural surroundings like leaf litter, mud, and wetland vegetation.
- Ecological Significance: Their presence is considered an indicator of healthy ecosystems, particularly in forested and riparian habitats.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/two-never-before-seen-snakes-discovered-in-india-with-rare-body-feature-2887928-2026-03-27
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
Scientists from the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun documented the Rakhine Keelback (Herpetoreas davidi) in Ngengpui Wildlife Sanctuary, and the Kachin Hills Keelback (Hebius gilhodesi) in Namdapha National Park and Kamlang Tiger Reserve.
- Keelback snakes are typically non-venomous.
- Habitat: These are often found near water bodies such as streams and wetlands.
- Habitat: They are found in moist localities within wet and dry forest environments.
- Diet:Frogs, lizards and occasionally fish and tadpoles
- Features
- One of the most distinctive features of keelback snakes is their “keeled” scales.
- Each scale has a raised ridge running down its center, giving the snake’s skin a noticeably rough and textured feel.
- The keeled surface not only gives keelbacks a more rugged appearance but also helps with camouflage,
- As the texture can break up light reflections and allow them to blend more effectively into natural surroundings like leaf litter, mud, and wetland vegetation.
- Ecological Significance: Their presence is considered an indicator of healthy ecosystems, particularly in forested and riparian habitats.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/two-never-before-seen-snakes-discovered-in-india-with-rare-body-feature-2887928-2026-03-27
Last updated on March, 2026
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→ Anuj Agnihotri secured AIR 1 in the UPSC Civil Services Examination 2025.
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→ UPSC Notification 2026 & UPSC IFoS Notification 2026 is now out on the official website at upsconline.nic.in.
→ UPSC Calendar 2026 has been released.
→ Check out the latest UPSC Syllabus 2026 here.
→ UPSC Prelims 2026 will be conducted on 24th May, 2026 & UPSC Mains 2026 will be conducted on 21st August 2026.
→ The UPSC Selection Process is of 3 stages-Prelims, Mains and Interview.
→ Prepare effectively with Vajiram & Ravi’s UPSC Prelims Test Series 2026 featuring full-length mock tests, detailed solutions, and performance analysis.
→ Enroll in Vajiram & Ravi’s UPSC Mains Test Series 2026 for structured answer writing practice, expert evaluation, and exam-oriented feedback.
→ Join Vajiram & Ravi’s Best UPSC Mentorship Program for personalized guidance, strategy planning, and one-to-one support from experienced mentors.
→ Shakti Dubey secures AIR 1 in UPSC CSE Exam 2024.
→ Also check Best UPSC Coaching in India
UPSC Daily Quiz FAQs
Q1. What is the Daily UPSC Quiz?+
Ans. The Daily UPSC Quiz is a set of practice questions based on current affairs, static subjects, and PYQs that help aspirants enhance retention and test conceptual clarity regularly.
Q2. How is the Daily Quiz useful for UPSC preparation?+
Ans. Daily quizzes support learning, help in revision, improve time management, and boost accuracy for both UPSC Prelims and Mains through consistent practice.
Q3. Are the quiz questions based on the UPSC syllabus?+
Ans. Yes, all questions are aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, covering key areas like Polity, Economy, Environment, History, Geography, and Current Affairs.
Q4. Are solutions and explanations provided with the quiz?+
Ans. Yes, each quiz includes detailed explanations and source references to enhance conceptual understanding and enable self-assessment.
Q5. Is the Daily UPSC Quiz suitable for both Prelims and Mains?+
Ans. Primarily focused on Prelims (MCQ format), but it also indirectly helps in Mains by strengthening subject knowledge and factual clarity.
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