The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions.
UPSC Daily Quiz 25 November 2025
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The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsThe Pazhayar River flows in which Indian state?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Rampant discharge of sewage and untreated water into the Pazhayar river at several places in Nagercoil has raised serious concerns among residents about the river’s future and measures being taken to curb the pollution.
About Pazhayar River:
- It is a major river flowing in the Kanniyakumari district of Tamil Nadu.
- Course:
- It originates from the slopes of Mahendragiri hills at an altitude of 800 m above M.S.L.
- It flows towards southwestern direction and joins the Arabian Sea near Manakudi.
- The total length of the river is 40 km.
- Alathurayar, Poigaiyar, Thadaveyar, Koya odai, and Ulakkaruviyar are the major tributaries of the Pazhayar River.
- Chattupythur dam, Chettothoppu dam, Cholanmkattu dam, Kutty dam, Kumari dam, Mission dam, Pallikondam dam, Pillaipetha dam, Salari dam, Veerapuli dam, and Veeranarayanamangalam are some of the dams constructed in the Pazhayar River.
- The Manakudi Estuary at its mouth is ecologically sensitive and rich in mangroves, birds, and marine life.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
Rampant discharge of sewage and untreated water into the Pazhayar river at several places in Nagercoil has raised serious concerns among residents about the river’s future and measures being taken to curb the pollution.
About Pazhayar River:
- It is a major river flowing in the Kanniyakumari district of Tamil Nadu.
- Course:
- It originates from the slopes of Mahendragiri hills at an altitude of 800 m above M.S.L.
- It flows towards southwestern direction and joins the Arabian Sea near Manakudi.
- The total length of the river is 40 km.
- Alathurayar, Poigaiyar, Thadaveyar, Koya odai, and Ulakkaruviyar are the major tributaries of the Pazhayar River.
- Chattupythur dam, Chettothoppu dam, Cholanmkattu dam, Kutty dam, Kumari dam, Mission dam, Pallikondam dam, Pillaipetha dam, Salari dam, Veerapuli dam, and Veeranarayanamangalam are some of the dams constructed in the Pazhayar River.
- The Manakudi Estuary at its mouth is ecologically sensitive and rich in mangroves, birds, and marine life.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsPostojna Cave, recently seen in the news, is located in which country?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
Researchers from Poland, the United States, and Slovenia recently worked out exact equations for stalagmite shapes, then checked them on real cave specimens from Postojna Cave in Slovenia.
 About Postojna Cave:
- It is located in western Slovenia.
- It is a 24 km long cave carved out by the Pivka River over millions of years.
- It’s made of limestone, and each 1 cm of growth takes around 100 years.
- The Pivka River enters the Postojna cavern 18 m below its mouth, runs underground, and reappears as a spring in the Planina Plain.
- The caves were officially discovered in the 1800s (although graffiti in the caves dates back to as early as the 1200s), and have been open as a tourist attraction since 1819.
- It is the only karst cave with a railway, which was built more than 140 years ago.
- The cave system hosts Proteus anguinus — a blind, colorless, snake-like amphibian about 30 cm long, with both lungs and gills, feeding on snails and worms.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
Researchers from Poland, the United States, and Slovenia recently worked out exact equations for stalagmite shapes, then checked them on real cave specimens from Postojna Cave in Slovenia.
 About Postojna Cave:
- It is located in western Slovenia.
- It is a 24 km long cave carved out by the Pivka River over millions of years.
- It’s made of limestone, and each 1 cm of growth takes around 100 years.
- The Pivka River enters the Postojna cavern 18 m below its mouth, runs underground, and reappears as a spring in the Planina Plain.
- The caves were officially discovered in the 1800s (although graffiti in the caves dates back to as early as the 1200s), and have been open as a tourist attraction since 1819.
- It is the only karst cave with a railway, which was built more than 140 years ago.
- The cave system hosts Proteus anguinus — a blind, colorless, snake-like amphibian about 30 cm long, with both lungs and gills, feeding on snails and worms.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhat does Bharat NCAP primarily assess?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) recently released a comprehensive draft for Bharat NCAP 2.0, a significantly expanded version of the country’s crash test rating programme.
About Bharat NCAP:
- The Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP) is an indigenous star-rating system for crash testing cars, under which vehicles will be assigned between one to five stars, indicating their safety in a collision.
- It is an ambitious joint project between the Government of India (GoI) and Global NCAP, the regulatory body behind the safety crash test ratings.
- It was launched on 22 August 2023 and commenced on 1 October 2023.
- Objective: To help consumers make an informed decision before purchasing a car, thereby spurring demand for safer cars.
- Under the Bharat NCAP, cars voluntarily nominated by automobile manufacturers will be crash tested as per protocols laid down in the Automotive Industry Standard (AIS) 197.
- Vehicles tested under the Bharat NCAP are evaluated across three critical safety domains: adult occupant protection, child occupant protection, and safety assist technologies.
- Applicability:
- Only right-hand drive passenger vehicles on sale in India and weighing less than 3,500 kg are eligible for consideration.
- Base variants of cars are to be tested, and ratings will be applicable for four years.
- Besides internal combustion engine (ICE) models, CNG cars as well as battery-powered electric vehicles are eligible to undergo the safety test.
- It is a voluntary programme under which the cost of the car for assessment for star rating and the cost of such assessment are borne by the respective vehicle manufacturer or importer.
- Bharat NCAP is overseen by the Ministry of Road Transport, but is an independent body.
- The current Bharat NCAP regulations remain valid until September 30, 2027, after which Bharat NCAP 2.0 is expected to be implemented by October 2027.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) recently released a comprehensive draft for Bharat NCAP 2.0, a significantly expanded version of the country’s crash test rating programme.
About Bharat NCAP:
- The Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP) is an indigenous star-rating system for crash testing cars, under which vehicles will be assigned between one to five stars, indicating their safety in a collision.
- It is an ambitious joint project between the Government of India (GoI) and Global NCAP, the regulatory body behind the safety crash test ratings.
- It was launched on 22 August 2023 and commenced on 1 October 2023.
- Objective: To help consumers make an informed decision before purchasing a car, thereby spurring demand for safer cars.
- Under the Bharat NCAP, cars voluntarily nominated by automobile manufacturers will be crash tested as per protocols laid down in the Automotive Industry Standard (AIS) 197.
- Vehicles tested under the Bharat NCAP are evaluated across three critical safety domains: adult occupant protection, child occupant protection, and safety assist technologies.
- Applicability:
- Only right-hand drive passenger vehicles on sale in India and weighing less than 3,500 kg are eligible for consideration.
- Base variants of cars are to be tested, and ratings will be applicable for four years.
- Besides internal combustion engine (ICE) models, CNG cars as well as battery-powered electric vehicles are eligible to undergo the safety test.
- It is a voluntary programme under which the cost of the car for assessment for star rating and the cost of such assessment are borne by the respective vehicle manufacturer or importer.
- Bharat NCAP is overseen by the Ministry of Road Transport, but is an independent body.
- The current Bharat NCAP regulations remain valid until September 30, 2027, after which Bharat NCAP 2.0 is expected to be implemented by October 2027.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Special Leave Petition (SLP):
- It can only be exercised when a substantial question of law or gross injustice has been committed.
- It is governed under Article 142 of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh High Court recently observed that dismissal of a Special Leave Petition (SLP), whether by a speaking or non-speaking order, does not lead to merger of the impugned order with the Supreme Court’s order.
About Special Leave Petition (SLP):
- A SLP is a request made to the Supreme Court of India seeking special permission to appeal against any judgment, order, or decree from any court or tribunal (except military tribunals), even when the law does not provide a statutory right of appeal.
- In other words, SLP is not a right—it’s a privilege granted by the Supreme Court at its discretion.
- Article 136 states that the Supreme Court may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, or order from any court or tribunal in India.
- It can only be exercised when a substantial question of law or gross injustice has been committed.
- A judgement, decree, or order need not be final for an SLP. An interim or interlocutory order, decree, or judgement can also be challenged.
- It is a discretionary/optional power of the SC, and the court can refuse to grant the appeal at its discretion.
- The aggrieved party can’t affirm a special leave to offer under Article 136 as a right.
- SLP can be filed by:
- Any aggrieved party (individual or business)
- Government bodies
- Public sector undertakings
- NGOs or associations (in relevant cases)
- The key requirement is that the party must be aggrieved by the impugned judgment or order.
- An SLP can be filed for any civil or criminal matter, etc.
- SLP can be filed against judgments from:
- High Courts
- Tribunals (except those under armed forces)
- Quasi-judicial bodies
- Time limit to file SLP:
- It can be filed against any judgment of the High Court within 90 days from the date of judgment or
- It can be filed within 60 days against the order of the High Court refusing to grant the certificate of fitness for appeal to SC.
- Procedure for a SLP:
- A SLP must contain all the facts upon which the SC is to decide, which revolve around the grounds on which an SLP can be filed.
- The said petition needs to be duly signed by an Advocate-on-Record.
- The petitioner must include a statement within the SLP stating that no other petition has been filed in a High Court.
- Once the petition is filed, the SC will hear the aggrieved party and depending upon the merits of the case, will allow the opposite party to state their part in a counter affidavit.
- After the hearing, if the court deems the case fit for further hearing, it will allow the same; otherwise it will reject the appeal.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh High Court recently observed that dismissal of a Special Leave Petition (SLP), whether by a speaking or non-speaking order, does not lead to merger of the impugned order with the Supreme Court’s order.
About Special Leave Petition (SLP):
- A SLP is a request made to the Supreme Court of India seeking special permission to appeal against any judgment, order, or decree from any court or tribunal (except military tribunals), even when the law does not provide a statutory right of appeal.
- In other words, SLP is not a right—it’s a privilege granted by the Supreme Court at its discretion.
- Article 136 states that the Supreme Court may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, or order from any court or tribunal in India.
- It can only be exercised when a substantial question of law or gross injustice has been committed.
- A judgement, decree, or order need not be final for an SLP. An interim or interlocutory order, decree, or judgement can also be challenged.
- It is a discretionary/optional power of the SC, and the court can refuse to grant the appeal at its discretion.
- The aggrieved party can’t affirm a special leave to offer under Article 136 as a right.
- SLP can be filed by:
- Any aggrieved party (individual or business)
- Government bodies
- Public sector undertakings
- NGOs or associations (in relevant cases)
- The key requirement is that the party must be aggrieved by the impugned judgment or order.
- An SLP can be filed for any civil or criminal matter, etc.
- SLP can be filed against judgments from:
- High Courts
- Tribunals (except those under armed forces)
- Quasi-judicial bodies
- Time limit to file SLP:
- It can be filed against any judgment of the High Court within 90 days from the date of judgment or
- It can be filed within 60 days against the order of the High Court refusing to grant the certificate of fitness for appeal to SC.
- Procedure for a SLP:
- A SLP must contain all the facts upon which the SC is to decide, which revolve around the grounds on which an SLP can be filed.
- The said petition needs to be duly signed by an Advocate-on-Record.
- The petitioner must include a statement within the SLP stating that no other petition has been filed in a High Court.
- Once the petition is filed, the SC will hear the aggrieved party and depending upon the merits of the case, will allow the opposite party to state their part in a counter affidavit.
- After the hearing, if the court deems the case fit for further hearing, it will allow the same; otherwise it will reject the appeal.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements the Capital Gains Account Scheme (CGAS), 1988, recently seen in the news:
- It was introduced to help taxpayers claim exemptions on long-term capital gains.
- Investing the gains in this account is treated the same as direct reinvestment for exemption purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Ministry of Finance recently notified the Capital Gains Accounts (Second Amendment) Scheme, 2025, introducing changes to the Capital Gains Account Scheme (CGAS), 1988.
About Capital Gains Account Scheme (CGAS), 1988:
- It was introduced by the Central Government in 1988 to help taxpayers claim exemptions on long-term capital gains.
- Under Section 54 of the Income Tax Act, income from capital gains must be reinvested within 3 years to avoid tax liability.
- However, there could be instances when the due date for filing income tax falls during this specified tenure.
- If a taxpayer is unable to invest in such a short period of time, they can deposit such underutilised capital gains under CGAS.
- However, taxpayers must deposit such funds before filing their Income Tax Returns.
- Investing the gains in this account is treated the same as direct reinvestment for exemption purposes.
- However, short-term capital gains are not eligible for the CGAS, as exemptions apply only to long-term capital gains.
â—ŹÂ Â Â Â Â Â Who Can Deposit in CGAS?
- Any taxpayer who earns long-term capital gains and wants to claim exemption can deposit in the CGAS.
- This includes Individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), Companies, Trusts, and any other person eligible for capital gains exemption.
- The scheme is mainly used when the taxpayer is unable to reinvest the capital gains before the due date of filing their income tax return but intends to invest within the specified period to claim exemption.
- The deposited amount must then be used within the stipulated period to invest in the eligible asset; otherwise, it will be treated as taxable capital gain in the year the deadline expires.
Hence both statements are correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Ministry of Finance recently notified the Capital Gains Accounts (Second Amendment) Scheme, 2025, introducing changes to the Capital Gains Account Scheme (CGAS), 1988.
About Capital Gains Account Scheme (CGAS), 1988:
- It was introduced by the Central Government in 1988 to help taxpayers claim exemptions on long-term capital gains.
- Under Section 54 of the Income Tax Act, income from capital gains must be reinvested within 3 years to avoid tax liability.
- However, there could be instances when the due date for filing income tax falls during this specified tenure.
- If a taxpayer is unable to invest in such a short period of time, they can deposit such underutilised capital gains under CGAS.
- However, taxpayers must deposit such funds before filing their Income Tax Returns.
- Investing the gains in this account is treated the same as direct reinvestment for exemption purposes.
- However, short-term capital gains are not eligible for the CGAS, as exemptions apply only to long-term capital gains.
â—ŹÂ Â Â Â Â Â Who Can Deposit in CGAS?
- Any taxpayer who earns long-term capital gains and wants to claim exemption can deposit in the CGAS.
- This includes Individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), Companies, Trusts, and any other person eligible for capital gains exemption.
- The scheme is mainly used when the taxpayer is unable to reinvest the capital gains before the due date of filing their income tax return but intends to invest within the specified period to claim exemption.
- The deposited amount must then be used within the stipulated period to invest in the eligible asset; otherwise, it will be treated as taxable capital gain in the year the deadline expires.
Hence both statements are correct.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Information Security Education and Awareness (ISEA) Project:
- It is an initiative of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India.
- It is aimed at human resources development for safe, trusted, and secure cyber space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) launched the Cyber Security Innovation Challenge (CSIC) 1.0 under the Information Security Education and Awareness (ISEA) Project of MeitY.
It is an initiative of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India.
It was started in 2005 and currently in its third phase since Oct. 2023 onwards
Purpose: Generating human resources in the area of Information Security and creating general awareness on cyber hygiene/cyber security among the masses.
Aim: It is aimed at human resources development for safe, trusted, and secure cyber space.
Implementation of Information Security Education and Awareness Project:
The project is implemented through select 50 institutions in a hub-n-spoke mode, comprising:
Premier Academic Institutions i.e. IITs, NITs, IIITs, etc.
Autonomous Organizations of MeitY i.e. C-DAC & NIELIT
Technical Universities
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2193695
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) launched the Cyber Security Innovation Challenge (CSIC) 1.0 under the Information Security Education and Awareness (ISEA) Project of MeitY.
It is an initiative of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India.
It was started in 2005 and currently in its third phase since Oct. 2023 onwards
Purpose: Generating human resources in the area of Information Security and creating general awareness on cyber hygiene/cyber security among the masses.
Aim: It is aimed at human resources development for safe, trusted, and secure cyber space.
Implementation of Information Security Education and Awareness Project:
The project is implemented through select 50 institutions in a hub-n-spoke mode, comprising:
Premier Academic Institutions i.e. IITs, NITs, IIITs, etc.
Autonomous Organizations of MeitY i.e. C-DAC & NIELIT
Technical Universities
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2193695
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Asian and Pacific Centre for Development of Disaster Information Management:
- It is a regional institution of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific.
- Its headquarter is located in New Delhi, India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the 10th Session of the Asian and Pacific Centre for Development of Disaster Information Management (APDIM) on Inclusive Disaster Risk Data Governance was held in New Delhi.
It is a regional institution of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP).
Vision: To ensure effective disaster risk information is produced and used for sustainable development in Asia and the Pacific.
Mandate: To reduce human and material losses due to natural hazards and contribute to the effective design, investment and implementation of disaster risk reduction and resilience policies.
Governance: It is governed by a Governing Council consisting of eight ESCAP member countries elected for a period of three years (India is one of the member for a period from 2022 to 2025).
Headquarter: Tehran, Iran.
Functions of Asian and Pacific Centre for Development of Disaster Information Management
Risk Information and Knowledge Repository: It functions as a regional facility to strengthen the science-policy interface.
Information Capacity and Application: It facilitates the exchange of expertise, experiences, and knowledge in disaster information management between and within the countries of the region.
Regional Cooperation and Coordination for Disaster Risk Information: It promotes effective regional cooperation, facilitate dialogue.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2192790
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the 10th Session of the Asian and Pacific Centre for Development of Disaster Information Management (APDIM) on Inclusive Disaster Risk Data Governance was held in New Delhi.
It is a regional institution of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP).
Vision: To ensure effective disaster risk information is produced and used for sustainable development in Asia and the Pacific.
Mandate: To reduce human and material losses due to natural hazards and contribute to the effective design, investment and implementation of disaster risk reduction and resilience policies.
Governance: It is governed by a Governing Council consisting of eight ESCAP member countries elected for a period of three years (India is one of the member for a period from 2022 to 2025).
Headquarter: Tehran, Iran.
Functions of Asian and Pacific Centre for Development of Disaster Information Management
Risk Information and Knowledge Repository: It functions as a regional facility to strengthen the science-policy interface.
Information Capacity and Application: It facilitates the exchange of expertise, experiences, and knowledge in disaster information management between and within the countries of the region.
Regional Cooperation and Coordination for Disaster Risk Information: It promotes effective regional cooperation, facilitate dialogue.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2192790
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding HAMMER Weapon System:
- It is an air-to-ground precision-guided weapon system.
- It can be launched from low altitudes over rough terrain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Bharat Electronics Limited and Safran Electronics and Defence (SED) signed a joint venture cooperation agreement for the production of HAMMER Weapon System in India.
The HAMMER (Highly Agile and Manoeuvrable Munition Extended Range) is an air-to-ground precision-guided weapon system developed by Safran, a French aerospace and defence company.
It is also known as a glide bomb.
Features of HAMMER Weapon System:
Range: HAMMER precision-guided munitions have a range of up to 70 km.
It can be fitted to standard bombs of 250kg, 500kg, and 1,000kg weights.
It is resistant to jamming, and capable of being launched from low altitudes over rough terrain.
It is difficult to intercept and can penetrate fortified structures.
Design and Capabilities: It is a precision-guided weapon system known for its high accuracy and modular design, making it adaptable for multiple platforms, including the Rafale and Light Combat Aircraft Tejas.
Hence both statements are correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Bharat Electronics Limited and Safran Electronics and Defence (SED) signed a joint venture cooperation agreement for the production of HAMMER Weapon System in India.
The HAMMER (Highly Agile and Manoeuvrable Munition Extended Range) is an air-to-ground precision-guided weapon system developed by Safran, a French aerospace and defence company.
It is also known as a glide bomb.
Features of HAMMER Weapon System:
Range: HAMMER precision-guided munitions have a range of up to 70 km.
It can be fitted to standard bombs of 250kg, 500kg, and 1,000kg weights.
It is resistant to jamming, and capable of being launched from low altitudes over rough terrain.
It is difficult to intercept and can penetrate fortified structures.
Design and Capabilities: It is a precision-guided weapon system known for its high accuracy and modular design, making it adaptable for multiple platforms, including the Rafale and Light Combat Aircraft Tejas.
Hence both statements are correct.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Auramine O, consider the following:
- It is a synthetic yellow dye produced from dimethylaniline and formaldehyde.
- It can dissolves easily when mixed with solvents.
- It is approved for use as a food colour in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
India continues to face recurring episodes of chemical adulteration in food, particularly through the use of non-permitted synthetic dyes and one of the most persistent among them is auramine O.
It is a synthetic yellow dye produced from compounds such as dimethylaniline and formaldehyde.
The dye appears as yellow flakes or powder and dissolves easily when mixed with solvents.
It is not approved for use as a food colour in India, the European Union, and the United States.
Applications of Auramine O: It is extensively used in industry, including textile and leather processing, printing inks, paper manufacturing, and certain microbiological staining procedures.
Impacts on Human Health: It creates health risks like liver and kidney damage, enlargement of the spleen, mutagenic effects that can alter genetic material, and potential carcinogenic outcomes.
Global context: It is classified as an industrial dye by the regulators in the U.S., EU, and East Asian nations and its presence in consumables triggers product recalls and import alerts.
The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classifies auramine as a substance that is possibly carcinogenic to humans.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
India continues to face recurring episodes of chemical adulteration in food, particularly through the use of non-permitted synthetic dyes and one of the most persistent among them is auramine O.
It is a synthetic yellow dye produced from compounds such as dimethylaniline and formaldehyde.
The dye appears as yellow flakes or powder and dissolves easily when mixed with solvents.
It is not approved for use as a food colour in India, the European Union, and the United States.
Applications of Auramine O: It is extensively used in industry, including textile and leather processing, printing inks, paper manufacturing, and certain microbiological staining procedures.
Impacts on Human Health: It creates health risks like liver and kidney damage, enlargement of the spleen, mutagenic effects that can alter genetic material, and potential carcinogenic outcomes.
Global context: It is classified as an industrial dye by the regulators in the U.S., EU, and East Asian nations and its presence in consumables triggers product recalls and import alerts.
The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classifies auramine as a substance that is possibly carcinogenic to humans.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsHayli Gubbi Volcano, recently in news, is located in:
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
Recently, the Hayli Gubbi volcano erupted for the first time after 10,000 years and its massive ash cloud is moving towards northern India.
Location: It is located in Ethiopia’s Afar region, in northeast of Addis Ababa near the Eritrean border.
It is a shield volcano sits within Ethiopia’s Danakil Depression, one of the hottest and most remote areas on the planet.
It is the southernmost volcano in the Erta Ale range.
The Erta Ale range is known for its persistent lava lakes and is primarily made up of shield volcanoes.
Hayli Gubbi has no previously recorded eruptions in modern history.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/ethiopia-hayli-gubbi-volcanic-eruption-india-impact-live-updates-november-25-2025/article70320044.ece
Incorrect
Last updated on November, 2025
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→ UPSC Result 2024 is released with latest UPSC Marksheet 2024. Check Now!
→ UPSC Prelims Result 2025 is out now for the CSE held on 25 May 2025.
→ UPSC Toppers List 2024 is released now. Shakti Dubey is UPSC AIR 1 2024 Topper.
→ UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2025 and Unofficial Prelims Answer Key 2025  are available now.
→ UPSC Mains Question Paper 2025 is out for Essay, GS 1, 2, 3 & GS 4.
→ UPSC Mains Indian Language Question Paper 2025 is now out.
→ UPSC Mains Optional Question Paper 2025 is now out.
→ Also check Best IAS Coaching in Delhi
UPSC Daily Quiz FAQs
Q1. What is the Daily UPSC Quiz?+
Ans. The Daily UPSC Quiz is a set of practice questions based on current affairs, static subjects, and PYQs that help aspirants enhance retention and test conceptual clarity regularly.
Q2. How is the Daily Quiz useful for UPSC preparation?+
Ans. Daily quizzes support learning, help in revision, improve time management, and boost accuracy for both UPSC Prelims and Mains through consistent practice.
Q3. Are the quiz questions based on the UPSC syllabus?+
Ans. Yes, all questions are aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, covering key areas like Polity, Economy, Environment, History, Geography, and Current Affairs.
Q4. Are solutions and explanations provided with the quiz?+
Ans. Yes, each quiz includes detailed explanations and source references to enhance conceptual understanding and enable self-assessment.
Q5. Is the Daily UPSC Quiz suitable for both Prelims and Mains?+
Ans. Primarily focused on Prelims (MCQ format), but it also indirectly helps in Mains by strengthening subject knowledge and factual clarity.
Tags: daily quiz upsc daily quiz upsc quiz
UPSC Daily Quiz 4 December 2025
UPSC Daily Quiz 3 December 2025
UPSC Daily Quiz 2 December 2025
