UPSC Daily Quiz 3 April 2026
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Vajiram & Ravi’s Daily UPSC Quiz is designed to help aspirants strengthen their preparation by focusing on current affairs and concepts from the UPSC Syllabus 2026 for both Prelims & Mains. It allows candidates to revise important topics while regularly assessing their understanding and progress. Practicing these quizzes daily can improve accuracy, speed, and problem-solving skills. This consistent practice also enhances confidence in tackling exam-level questions. Overall, it is a valuable tool for both UPSC Prelims preparation and Mains revision.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding General Anti Avoidance Rules:
- It is an anti-tax avoidance law in India to curb tax evasion and avoid tax leaks.
- It was recommended by the Santanam Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
India has amended income tax rules and has clarified that gains arising from assets acquired before April 1, 2017, will remain outside the ambit of general anti-avoidance rules (GAAR).
- It is an anti-tax avoidance law in India to curb tax evasion and avoid tax leaks.
- It came into effect on 1st April 2017. The GAAR provisions come under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
- It was recommended by the Parthasarathi Shome Committee.
- Aim: It is specifically aimed at cutting revenue losses that happen to the government due to aggressive tax avoidance measures practiced by companies.
- GAAR is a tool for checking aggressive tax planning, especially those transactions or business arrangements that are entered into with the objective of avoiding tax.
- It is meant to apply to transactions that are prima facie legal, but result in tax reduction.
- GAAR applies only if the tax benefit exceeds ₹3 crore in a financial year.
- GAAR provisions give wide powers to tax authorities to treat any arrangement or a transaction as an ‘impermissible avoidance arrangement’ (IAA) and re-compute income and consequent tax implications.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/et-front/investments-prior-to-2017-safeguarded-against-gaar/articleshow/129962110.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
India has amended income tax rules and has clarified that gains arising from assets acquired before April 1, 2017, will remain outside the ambit of general anti-avoidance rules (GAAR).
- It is an anti-tax avoidance law in India to curb tax evasion and avoid tax leaks.
- It came into effect on 1st April 2017. The GAAR provisions come under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
- It was recommended by the Parthasarathi Shome Committee.
- Aim: It is specifically aimed at cutting revenue losses that happen to the government due to aggressive tax avoidance measures practiced by companies.
- GAAR is a tool for checking aggressive tax planning, especially those transactions or business arrangements that are entered into with the objective of avoiding tax.
- It is meant to apply to transactions that are prima facie legal, but result in tax reduction.
- GAAR applies only if the tax benefit exceeds ₹3 crore in a financial year.
- GAAR provisions give wide powers to tax authorities to treat any arrangement or a transaction as an ‘impermissible avoidance arrangement’ (IAA) and re-compute income and consequent tax implications.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/et-front/investments-prior-to-2017-safeguarded-against-gaar/articleshow/129962110.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Non-Deliverable Derivative:
- It is a derivative contract where two parties agree on a future exchange rate for the rupee.
- It is widely used by Indian domestic banks and hedge funds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) gave directive to bar banks from non-deliverable derivative (NDD) contracts in the rupee.
- An NDD is a derivative contract where two parties agree on a future exchange rate for the rupee, but settle the difference in cash, usually in US dollars.
- Reason for formation: As India has capital controls, offshore investors can’t freely trade in the rupee in physical form. This led to the creation of the NDD markets in the rupee.
- Participating Parities: The NDD market is widely used by foreign investors, hedge funds and global banks who cannot freely access and play in the Indian rupee market.
- These trades take place offshore, outside the control of the RBI.
- This often acts as a price discovery mechanism for the rupee, even influencing expectations before Indian markets open.
- Issues with NDD
- Distort Price Discovery: These instruments have long been criticised for distorting price discovery.
- Used For Speculation: Some participants would cancel and re-enter contracts to take advantage of favourable movements, effectively turning hedging tools into speculative instruments.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/ndd-ban-is-it-the-end-of-speculative-games-in-rupee-10616229/#:~:text
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) gave directive to bar banks from non-deliverable derivative (NDD) contracts in the rupee.
- An NDD is a derivative contract where two parties agree on a future exchange rate for the rupee, but settle the difference in cash, usually in US dollars.
- Reason for formation: As India has capital controls, offshore investors can’t freely trade in the rupee in physical form. This led to the creation of the NDD markets in the rupee.
- Participating Parities: The NDD market is widely used by foreign investors, hedge funds and global banks who cannot freely access and play in the Indian rupee market.
- These trades take place offshore, outside the control of the RBI.
- This often acts as a price discovery mechanism for the rupee, even influencing expectations before Indian markets open.
- Issues with NDD
- Distort Price Discovery: These instruments have long been criticised for distorting price discovery.
- Used For Speculation: Some participants would cancel and re-enter contracts to take advantage of favourable movements, effectively turning hedging tools into speculative instruments.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/ndd-ban-is-it-the-end-of-speculative-games-in-rupee-10616229/#:~:text
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Trade Enablement and Marketing Initiative:
- It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) Programme.
- It has been launched by the Union Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Minister of State for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises informed the Lok Sabha about the Trade Enablement and Marketing Initiative.
- It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) Programme.
- The initiative will empower MSMEs with digital tools and guidance to effectively utilize the e-commerce marketplace.
- The key objectives of the TEAM Initiative:
- Facilitating onboarding of MSMEs onto the ONDC network to enable digital commerce participation.
- Supporting MSMEs in creation of digital product catalogues, branding and packaging improvements.
- Providing training and capacity building on e-commerce operations, digital marketing, logistics and online payments.
- Strengthening market linkages and increasing online sales opportunities for participating enterprises.
- Duration: 3 years from 2024 to 2027.
- Eligibility Criteria: All the Udyam registered Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) under manufacturing and services sectors will be eligible for benefits under the Initiative.
- Targeted beneficiaries: It envisages benefiting 5 lakh Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) of which 50% are to be women owned MSEs.
- Implementing Agency:National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
- Nodal Ministry: It has been launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2248374®=3&lang=1
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Minister of State for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises informed the Lok Sabha about the Trade Enablement and Marketing Initiative.
- It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) Programme.
- The initiative will empower MSMEs with digital tools and guidance to effectively utilize the e-commerce marketplace.
- The key objectives of the TEAM Initiative:
- Facilitating onboarding of MSMEs onto the ONDC network to enable digital commerce participation.
- Supporting MSMEs in creation of digital product catalogues, branding and packaging improvements.
- Providing training and capacity building on e-commerce operations, digital marketing, logistics and online payments.
- Strengthening market linkages and increasing online sales opportunities for participating enterprises.
- Duration: 3 years from 2024 to 2027.
- Eligibility Criteria: All the Udyam registered Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) under manufacturing and services sectors will be eligible for benefits under the Initiative.
- Targeted beneficiaries: It envisages benefiting 5 lakh Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) of which 50% are to be women owned MSEs.
- Implementing Agency:National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
- Nodal Ministry: It has been launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2248374®=3&lang=1
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding SAMPANN Platform:
- It is the flagship digital pension and financial management platform of the Department of Telecommunications.
- It is managed by the Office of the Controller General of Communication Accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Goa government and the Cochin Port Authority have taken a significant step towards modernizing pension disbursement by signing agreements to onboard the SAMPANN digital platform.
- SAMPANN (System for Accounting and Management of Pension) is the flagship digital pension and financial management platform of the Department of Telecommunications.
- It is managed by the Office of the Controller General of Communication Accounts (CGCA).
- It was designed to streamline pension sanction, authorisation, accounting and payment through a single digital platform.
- It was launched on 29th December, 2018.
- It provides direct credit of pension into the bank accounts of pensioners.
- Features of SAMPANN Platform:
- It is a cloud-based, end-to-end pension management system of the Department of Telecommunications.
- Direct disbursement of pension on a timely basis without intermediaries
- Single window system for complete pension process
- Online grievance management for the pensioners, reducing paperwork
- Tracking of pension status from home encourages transparency and accountability
- Faster processing of arrears and revision of pension
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2248476®=3&lang=2
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, the Goa government and the Cochin Port Authority have taken a significant step towards modernizing pension disbursement by signing agreements to onboard the SAMPANN digital platform.
- SAMPANN (System for Accounting and Management of Pension) is the flagship digital pension and financial management platform of the Department of Telecommunications.
- It is managed by the Office of the Controller General of Communication Accounts (CGCA).
- It was designed to streamline pension sanction, authorisation, accounting and payment through a single digital platform.
- It was launched on 29th December, 2018.
- It provides direct credit of pension into the bank accounts of pensioners.
- Features of SAMPANN Platform:
- It is a cloud-based, end-to-end pension management system of the Department of Telecommunications.
- Direct disbursement of pension on a timely basis without intermediaries
- Single window system for complete pension process
- Online grievance management for the pensioners, reducing paperwork
- Tracking of pension status from home encourages transparency and accountability
- Faster processing of arrears and revision of pension
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2248476®=3&lang=2
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Earthquake Lights:
- These are flashes of light that sometimes appear in the sky just after an earthquake.
- These occur more often in places with straight, vertical faults, like rift zones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, small earthquakes shook parts of the Aegean Sea near Turkey and Greece and floating lights appear in the sky after earthquake near Turkey which is called as earthquake lights by the scientists.
- Earthquake lights are flashes, streaks, balls, or tall pillars of light that sometimes appear in the sky right before, during, or just after an earthquake.
- Formation
- Earthquakes happen when huge tectonic plates push and grind against each other.
- This stress squeezes rocks in the crust, especially those containing quartz or certain minerals.
- The pressure creates electric charges inside the rocks.
- These charges then flow upward through cracks and faults until they reach the surface. Once there, they bump into air molecules and ionise them, stripping electrons and creating glowing plasma.
- The result is visible flashes or steady beams with no heat or fire.
- Scientists have noted that lights appear more often in places with straight, vertical faults, like rift zones, which act like easy pathways for electricity.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/floating-lights-earthquake-turkey-earthwuake-lights-science-explained-natural-phenomenon-2890585-2026-04-02
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, small earthquakes shook parts of the Aegean Sea near Turkey and Greece and floating lights appear in the sky after earthquake near Turkey which is called as earthquake lights by the scientists.
- Earthquake lights are flashes, streaks, balls, or tall pillars of light that sometimes appear in the sky right before, during, or just after an earthquake.
- Formation
- Earthquakes happen when huge tectonic plates push and grind against each other.
- This stress squeezes rocks in the crust, especially those containing quartz or certain minerals.
- The pressure creates electric charges inside the rocks.
- These charges then flow upward through cracks and faults until they reach the surface. Once there, they bump into air molecules and ionise them, stripping electrons and creating glowing plasma.
- The result is visible flashes or steady beams with no heat or fire.
- Scientists have noted that lights appear more often in places with straight, vertical faults, like rift zones, which act like easy pathways for electricity.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/floating-lights-earthquake-turkey-earthwuake-lights-science-explained-natural-phenomenon-2890585-2026-04-02
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Newcastle Disease, consider the following statements:
- It is caused by avian paramyxovirus serotype 1.
- It is a highly contagious and found worldwide that affects birds including domestic poultry.
- It only transmits through infected bird’s exhaled air.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, reports of Newcastle disease circulating across Europe, poultry producers across the UK are being urged to step up vigilance as the virus continues its concerning westward spread.
- It is caused by avian paramyxovirus serotype 1, affects chickens and a wide range of other birds.
- It is a highly contagious and often severe disease found worldwide that affects birds including domestic poultry.
- The disease appears in three forms: lentogenic or mild, mesogenic or moderate and velogenic or very virulent.
- The lentogenic strains are very widespread but cause few disease outbreaks.
- Transmission: Infected birds shed virus in exhaled air, respiratory discharge, and feces.
- The virus can remain alive in manure for up to 2 months and in dead carcasses for up to 12 months, however, it is easily killed by disinfectants, fumigants and direct sunlight.
- Symptoms:
- It usually presents as a respiratory disease, but depression, nervous manifestations, or diarrhoea may be the predominant clinical form.
- Respiratory signs – gasping, coughing, sneezing and rales
- Nervous signs – tremors, paralyzed wings and legs, twisted necks, circling, spasms, and paralysis
- Apartial or complete drop in egg production may occur. Eggs may be abnormal in color, shape, or surface, and have watery albumen
- Treatment: There is no treatment for Newcastle Disease, although treatment with antibiotics to control secondary infections may assist.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.poultryworld.net/health-nutrition/health/rising-cases-of-newcastle-disease-cases-prompt-calls-for-vigilance/
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, reports of Newcastle disease circulating across Europe, poultry producers across the UK are being urged to step up vigilance as the virus continues its concerning westward spread.
- It is caused by avian paramyxovirus serotype 1, affects chickens and a wide range of other birds.
- It is a highly contagious and often severe disease found worldwide that affects birds including domestic poultry.
- The disease appears in three forms: lentogenic or mild, mesogenic or moderate and velogenic or very virulent.
- The lentogenic strains are very widespread but cause few disease outbreaks.
- Transmission: Infected birds shed virus in exhaled air, respiratory discharge, and feces.
- The virus can remain alive in manure for up to 2 months and in dead carcasses for up to 12 months, however, it is easily killed by disinfectants, fumigants and direct sunlight.
- Symptoms:
- It usually presents as a respiratory disease, but depression, nervous manifestations, or diarrhoea may be the predominant clinical form.
- Respiratory signs – gasping, coughing, sneezing and rales
- Nervous signs – tremors, paralyzed wings and legs, twisted necks, circling, spasms, and paralysis
- Apartial or complete drop in egg production may occur. Eggs may be abnormal in color, shape, or surface, and have watery albumen
- Treatment: There is no treatment for Newcastle Disease, although treatment with antibiotics to control secondary infections may assist.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.poultryworld.net/health-nutrition/health/rising-cases-of-newcastle-disease-cases-prompt-calls-for-vigilance/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsGangotri National Park, recently in news, is located in:
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently the Gangotri National Park reopened after six-month winter break.
- Location: It is located in the state of Uttarakhand.
- It sits along the upper catchment of the Bhagirathi River.
- International boundary:The northeastern section of the park forms the international boundary of India and Tibet (China).
- The area enclosed by the park also borders Kedarnath Wildlife Sanctuary and Govind National Park.
- The mountains in the park are part of the Gangotri Group of the Garhwal Himalayas, which are a subrange of the eastern Himalayas.
- Important Peaks:Major peaks within the park include Chaukhamba I, Satopanth, Chaukhamba II, Chaukhamba III, and Kedarnath Main.
- Glacier: The famous Gangotri Glacieris located in the park boundaries and is known for being one of the primary sources of the Ganges.
- Flora: Western Himalayan subalpine conifer forests dominate the lower elevation landscapes. These forests are filled with fir trees intermixed with deodar, oak, spruce, and rhododendrons trees.
- Higher elevations in the park are home to Western Himalayan alpine shrubs.
- Fauna: It mainly home to Snow leopard, brown bear, blue sheep, musk deer, Asian black bear, and the Himalayan tahr etc.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2026/Apr/02/gangotri-national-park-now-open-to-tourists-after-six-month-winter-break
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently the Gangotri National Park reopened after six-month winter break.
- Location: It is located in the state of Uttarakhand.
- It sits along the upper catchment of the Bhagirathi River.
- International boundary:The northeastern section of the park forms the international boundary of India and Tibet (China).
- The area enclosed by the park also borders Kedarnath Wildlife Sanctuary and Govind National Park.
- The mountains in the park are part of the Gangotri Group of the Garhwal Himalayas, which are a subrange of the eastern Himalayas.
- Important Peaks:Major peaks within the park include Chaukhamba I, Satopanth, Chaukhamba II, Chaukhamba III, and Kedarnath Main.
- Glacier: The famous Gangotri Glacieris located in the park boundaries and is known for being one of the primary sources of the Ganges.
- Flora: Western Himalayan subalpine conifer forests dominate the lower elevation landscapes. These forests are filled with fir trees intermixed with deodar, oak, spruce, and rhododendrons trees.
- Higher elevations in the park are home to Western Himalayan alpine shrubs.
- Fauna: It mainly home to Snow leopard, brown bear, blue sheep, musk deer, Asian black bear, and the Himalayan tahr etc.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2026/Apr/02/gangotri-national-park-now-open-to-tourists-after-six-month-winter-break
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon:
- It is a peacekeeping mission in south Lebanon established by the UN Security Council.
- India is one of the troops contributing country to this interim force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, India condemned the recent killing of three Indonesian peacekeepers who were deployed in south Lebanon as part of the UNIFIL (United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon).
- It is a peacekeeping mission in south Lebanon.
- It was established by the Security Council in 1978.
- Background: Originally, UNIFIL was created by the Security Council in March 1978 to confirm Israeli withdrawal from Lebanon.
- The mandate had to be adjusted twice, due to the developments in 1982 and 2000.
- In 2006, the UN Security Council strengthened UNIFIL’s mandate to monitor the cessation of hostilities, among other tasks.
- Objectives: UNIFIL’s objectives include:
- Confirming Israeli withdrawal
- Restoring international peace and security
- Assisting the Lebanese Government in restoring its authority
- Monitoring the cessation of hostilities Protecting civilians and humanitarian workers
- UNIFIL has around 7,505peacekeepers coming from 47 troop-contributing.
- It has the Maritime Task Forcewhich is a naval peacekeeping force.
- It was deployed in October 2006 at the request of the Lebanese Government to help the Lebanese Navy secure the country’s sea borders and other maritime entry points
- India is also one of the troops contributing country.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-slams-attacks-on-unifil-soldiers-does-not-name-israel/article70815626.ece
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, India condemned the recent killing of three Indonesian peacekeepers who were deployed in south Lebanon as part of the UNIFIL (United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon).
- It is a peacekeeping mission in south Lebanon.
- It was established by the Security Council in 1978.
- Background: Originally, UNIFIL was created by the Security Council in March 1978 to confirm Israeli withdrawal from Lebanon.
- The mandate had to be adjusted twice, due to the developments in 1982 and 2000.
- In 2006, the UN Security Council strengthened UNIFIL’s mandate to monitor the cessation of hostilities, among other tasks.
- Objectives: UNIFIL’s objectives include:
- Confirming Israeli withdrawal
- Restoring international peace and security
- Assisting the Lebanese Government in restoring its authority
- Monitoring the cessation of hostilities Protecting civilians and humanitarian workers
- UNIFIL has around 7,505peacekeepers coming from 47 troop-contributing.
- It has the Maritime Task Forcewhich is a naval peacekeeping force.
- It was deployed in October 2006 at the request of the Lebanese Government to help the Lebanese Navy secure the country’s sea borders and other maritime entry points
- India is also one of the troops contributing country.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-slams-attacks-on-unifil-soldiers-does-not-name-israel/article70815626.ece
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Burkina Faso, consider the following statements:
- It is a landlocked country located in western Africa.
- It shares its border with Niger and Democratic Republic of Congo.
- It is predominantly characterized by savannahs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, India has sent a consignment of one thousand metric tonnes of rice to Burkina Faso as humanitarian assistance.
- It is a landlocked country in western Africa.
- Bordering countries: It shares its borders with six other nations: Mali to the north and west, Niger to the east, and Benin to the southeast, while to the south it touches Togo, Ghana, and Ivory Coast.
- Capital City: Ouagadougou
- Geographical Features of Burkina Faso:
- Terrain: It is predominantly characterized by savannahs, plateaus, and low mountainsin the southwest.
- The northern region, known as the Sahel, is arid and desert-like.
- Highest mountain:Mount Tenakourou
- Rivers:Black Volta, Red Volta, and White Volta (These 3 converge in Ghana and form the Volta River).
- Lakes: The country’s largest lake, Lake Bam, lies near the center of the country.
- Natural Resources: It is rich in mineral resources, and produces gold, silver, zinc, manganese, phosphate and limestone in substantial quantities.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-sends-1000-metric-tonnes-of-rice-to-burkina-faso-as-humanitarian-aid/
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, India has sent a consignment of one thousand metric tonnes of rice to Burkina Faso as humanitarian assistance.
- It is a landlocked country in western Africa.
- Bordering countries: It shares its borders with six other nations: Mali to the north and west, Niger to the east, and Benin to the southeast, while to the south it touches Togo, Ghana, and Ivory Coast.
- Capital City: Ouagadougou
- Geographical Features of Burkina Faso:
- Terrain: It is predominantly characterized by savannahs, plateaus, and low mountainsin the southwest.
- The northern region, known as the Sahel, is arid and desert-like.
- Highest mountain:Mount Tenakourou
- Rivers:Black Volta, Red Volta, and White Volta (These 3 converge in Ghana and form the Volta River).
- Lakes: The country’s largest lake, Lake Bam, lies near the center of the country.
- Natural Resources: It is rich in mineral resources, and produces gold, silver, zinc, manganese, phosphate and limestone in substantial quantities.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-sends-1000-metric-tonnes-of-rice-to-burkina-faso-as-humanitarian-aid/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Multi-Hazard Early Warning Decision Support System:
- It operates in real time using tools such as Geographic Information System.
- It is an advanced digital forecasting platform developed by the Ministry Of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Multi-Hazard Early Warning Decision Support System represents a decisive transformation in India’s approach to weather forecasting and disaster risk reduction.
- It is an advanced digital forecasting platform developed by the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) using open-source technology and in-house expertise.
- It is digital transformation initiative under Mission Mausam.
- It was officially launched in January 2024.
- It operates in real time using tools such as Geographic Information System (GIS) maps, enabling forecasters to quickly collect, analyse, and disseminate weather information in a clear and user-friendly manner.
- Features of Multi-Hazard Early Warning Decision Support System
- Automated Weather Data Processing:Over 90% of weather data collection, quality checks, and integration are automated, enabling faster detection of weather systems and their possible impacts.
- Better Use of Forecast Models:More than 95% of numerical weather prediction model inputs are now used in forecasting, improving risk assessment for different weather hazards.
- Re-engineered Forecasting System: The entire forecasting and warning generation process has been re-engineered, enabling real-time alerts and faster decision-making.
- Longer Forecast Lead Time:Forecast lead time has increased from 5 days to 7 days, allowing authorities and communities to prepare in advance.
- Faster Forecast Preparation:The time required to prepare forecasts has reduced by about 3 hours from 6 hours, enabling quicker dissemination of warnings.
- Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2248147®=3&lang=1
Incorrect
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UPSC Daily Quiz FAQs
Q1. What is the Daily UPSC Quiz?+
Ans. The Daily UPSC Quiz is a set of practice questions based on current affairs, static subjects, and PYQs that help aspirants enhance retention and test conceptual clarity regularly.
Q2. How is the Daily Quiz useful for UPSC preparation?+
Ans. Daily quizzes support learning, help in revision, improve time management, and boost accuracy for both UPSC Prelims and Mains through consistent practice.
Q3. Are the quiz questions based on the UPSC syllabus?+
Ans. Yes, all questions are aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, covering key areas like Polity, Economy, Environment, History, Geography, and Current Affairs.
Q4. Are solutions and explanations provided with the quiz?+
Ans. Yes, each quiz includes detailed explanations and source references to enhance conceptual understanding and enable self-assessment.
Q5. Is the Daily UPSC Quiz suitable for both Prelims and Mains?+
Ans. Primarily focused on Prelims (MCQ format), but it also indirectly helps in Mains by strengthening subject knowledge and factual clarity.
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