The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions.
UPSC Daily Quiz 5 December 2025
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The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhat is the theme of World Soil Day 2025?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
World Soil Day 2025 underscores the urgent need to restore and protect soil health as cities expand and environmental threats intensify.
About World Soil Day (WSD):
It is held annually on 5 December as a means to focus attention on the importance of healthy soil and to advocate for the sustainable management of soil resources.
History:
The idea of dedicating a day to soil conservation first emerged in 2002, when the International Union of Soil Sciences proposed the observance to create global awareness.
With support from the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and guidance from the Kingdom of Thailand, the initiative gained momentum.
In 2013, the United Nations General Assembly officially declared December 5 as World Soil Day, with the first celebration held in 2014.
WSD 2025 Theme: It carries the theme “Healthy Soils for Healthy Cities,” shifting attention from rural farmlands to the often-overlooked soil beneath urban landscapes.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehansindia.com/life-style/environment/world-soil-day-2025-theme-significance-and-why-soil-health-matters-more-than-ever-1028637
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
World Soil Day 2025 underscores the urgent need to restore and protect soil health as cities expand and environmental threats intensify.
About World Soil Day (WSD):
It is held annually on 5 December as a means to focus attention on the importance of healthy soil and to advocate for the sustainable management of soil resources.
History:
The idea of dedicating a day to soil conservation first emerged in 2002, when the International Union of Soil Sciences proposed the observance to create global awareness.
With support from the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and guidance from the Kingdom of Thailand, the initiative gained momentum.
In 2013, the United Nations General Assembly officially declared December 5 as World Soil Day, with the first celebration held in 2014.
WSD 2025 Theme: It carries the theme “Healthy Soils for Healthy Cities,” shifting attention from rural farmlands to the often-overlooked soil beneath urban landscapes.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehansindia.com/life-style/environment/world-soil-day-2025-theme-significance-and-why-soil-health-matters-more-than-ever-1028637
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- It is situated in Rajasthan.
- It was earlier known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary.
- It is a Ramsar site and also a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- It is strategically located in the middle of the Central Asian migratory flyway.
The above statements correctly describe which protected area?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Migratory birds such as stork cranes, pelicans, painted storks, and bar-headed geese returned to the Keoladeo National Park after heavy rains in the monsoon.
About Keoladeo National Park:
It is situated in the Bharatpur district of Rajasthan.
It was earlier known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary.
It is recognised as one of the world’s most important bird breeding and feeding grounds.
It was founded in the late 19th century as a hunting preserve by Suraj Mal, the maharaja of the Bharatpur princely state, and became a bird sanctuary in 1956.
Declared a national park in 1981, it was renamed Keoladeo for the ancient temple in the park dedicated to the Hindu god Shiva.
It has an area of 29 sq.km.
It is the only one of its kind in India which is enclosed by a 2-meters boundary wall to fend off encroachments.
It is a Ramsar site and also a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Vegetation:
Woodlands, swamps, and wet grasslands cover a large part of the park.
The vegetation here is of a dry deciduous type, with medium-sized trees and shrubs found inside its forest.
Flora: Some of the trees which can be commonly spotted inside the park are kadam, jamun, babul, kandi, ber, kair, and piloo.
Fauna:
It is home to a range of mammals and reptiles—including pythons and other snakes, deer, sambars, blackbucks, jackals, monitor lizards, and fishing cats.
It is strategically located in the middle of the Central Asian migratory flyway.
It is home to more than 360 species of permanent and migratory birds.
During the annual period of migratory visitors (about October to March), birds from throughout the world can be found in the park.
Among those wintering in the park are waterfowl from Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, China, and Siberia, including species such as gadwalls, shovellers, common teals, tufted ducks, pintails, white spoonbills, Asian open-billed storks, Oriental ibises, and the rare Siberian crane.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/bharat/world-wildlife-day-spotlight-keoladeo-national-park-a-unique-example-of-wetland-conservation-and-biodiversity-enn25120403925
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
Migratory birds such as stork cranes, pelicans, painted storks, and bar-headed geese returned to the Keoladeo National Park after heavy rains in the monsoon.
About Keoladeo National Park:
It is situated in the Bharatpur district of Rajasthan.
It was earlier known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary.
It is recognised as one of the world’s most important bird breeding and feeding grounds.
It was founded in the late 19th century as a hunting preserve by Suraj Mal, the maharaja of the Bharatpur princely state, and became a bird sanctuary in 1956.
Declared a national park in 1981, it was renamed Keoladeo for the ancient temple in the park dedicated to the Hindu god Shiva.
It has an area of 29 sq.km.
It is the only one of its kind in India which is enclosed by a 2-meters boundary wall to fend off encroachments.
It is a Ramsar site and also a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Vegetation:
Woodlands, swamps, and wet grasslands cover a large part of the park.
The vegetation here is of a dry deciduous type, with medium-sized trees and shrubs found inside its forest.
Flora: Some of the trees which can be commonly spotted inside the park are kadam, jamun, babul, kandi, ber, kair, and piloo.
Fauna:
It is home to a range of mammals and reptiles—including pythons and other snakes, deer, sambars, blackbucks, jackals, monitor lizards, and fishing cats.
It is strategically located in the middle of the Central Asian migratory flyway.
It is home to more than 360 species of permanent and migratory birds.
During the annual period of migratory visitors (about October to March), birds from throughout the world can be found in the park.
Among those wintering in the park are waterfowl from Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, China, and Siberia, including species such as gadwalls, shovellers, common teals, tufted ducks, pintails, white spoonbills, Asian open-billed storks, Oriental ibises, and the rare Siberian crane.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/bharat/world-wildlife-day-spotlight-keoladeo-national-park-a-unique-example-of-wetland-conservation-and-biodiversity-enn25120403925
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Tensor Processing Unit (TPU):
- It is a specialized chip designed to accelerate AI and machine learning (ML) tasks.
- TPUs were developed by Microsoft in 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:Â Â Â Â Â
According to reports, Meta is in advanced talks with Google to use its Tensor Processing Units (TPUs).
About Tensor Processing Unit (TPU):
A TPU is a specialized chip designed to accelerate AI and machine learning (ML) tasks.
Unlike traditional computer processors (CPUs) or graphics processing units (GPUs), TPUs are specifically built to handle the complex calculations required for deep learning models.
TPUs were developed by Google in 2016 to improve the performance of their AI applications, such as Google Search, Google Translate, and Google Photos.
Since then, TPUs have become a key component in AI infrastructure and are widely used in data centers and cloud computing.
How Do TPUs Work?
AI models rely on a type of mathematical operation called tensor computation.
A tensor is a multi-dimensional array of numbers, similar to a table of data.
Deep learning models use these tensors to process large amounts of information and make predictions.
TPUs are optimized for tensor computations, allowing them to process large datasets much faster than CPUs or GPUs.
They achieve this through:
Massive parallelism: TPUs can perform many calculations at once, making them highly efficient.
Low power consumption: Compared to GPUs, TPUs use less energy while delivering high performance.
Specialized circuits: TPUs have circuits specifically designed for AI workloads, reducing the need for unnecessary computations.
While CPUs are great for general tasks and GPUs are an excellent choice for gaming and AI, TPUs are specifically designed to make AI models work faster and more efficiently.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.msn.com/en-in/money/news/breaking-the-stranglehold-google-aims-to-end-nvidia-s-chip-dominance/ar-AA1RbN10
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:Â Â Â Â Â
According to reports, Meta is in advanced talks with Google to use its Tensor Processing Units (TPUs).
About Tensor Processing Unit (TPU):
A TPU is a specialized chip designed to accelerate AI and machine learning (ML) tasks.
Unlike traditional computer processors (CPUs) or graphics processing units (GPUs), TPUs are specifically built to handle the complex calculations required for deep learning models.
TPUs were developed by Google in 2016 to improve the performance of their AI applications, such as Google Search, Google Translate, and Google Photos.
Since then, TPUs have become a key component in AI infrastructure and are widely used in data centers and cloud computing.
How Do TPUs Work?
AI models rely on a type of mathematical operation called tensor computation.
A tensor is a multi-dimensional array of numbers, similar to a table of data.
Deep learning models use these tensors to process large amounts of information and make predictions.
TPUs are optimized for tensor computations, allowing them to process large datasets much faster than CPUs or GPUs.
They achieve this through:
Massive parallelism: TPUs can perform many calculations at once, making them highly efficient.
Low power consumption: Compared to GPUs, TPUs use less energy while delivering high performance.
Specialized circuits: TPUs have circuits specifically designed for AI workloads, reducing the need for unnecessary computations.
While CPUs are great for general tasks and GPUs are an excellent choice for gaming and AI, TPUs are specifically designed to make AI models work faster and more efficiently.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.msn.com/en-in/money/news/breaking-the-stranglehold-google-aims-to-end-nvidia-s-chip-dominance/ar-AA1RbN10
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address (DHRUVA):
- It envisions a standardized, interoperable, and geocoded digital addressing system.
- It is developed by the Ministry of Electronics and IT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Department of Posts recently released a draft amendment to the Post Office Act, 2023, aimed at introducing an interoperable, standardised, and user-centric addressing system called the Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address, or DHRUVA.
About Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address (DHRUVA):
Developed by the Department of Posts, DHRUVA sets the foundation for a nationwide Digital Address Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI).
It envisions a standardized, interoperable, and geocoded digital addressing system that supports secure, consent-based, and seamless sharing of address information.
At its core is the concept of Address-as-a-Service (AaaS) — the array of services associated with address data management to support secure and efficient interactions between users, government entities, and private sector organizations.
The AaaS Framework Ensures:
Interoperability across different address systems used by various sectors.
Standardization of address formats and geolocation tagging.
Consent-based sharing to empower user control and privacy.
Public-private integration for seamless adoption and innovation.
By recognizing digital addresses as core infrastructure, akin to Aadhaar and Unified Payments Interface (UPI), DHRUVA sets out to streamline everything from e-governance and online commerce to urban planning and emergency services.
The policy also places emphasis on user-centric design, ensuring that citizens have meaningful control over how their address data is used and shared.
Citizens will retain full control over their digital address identity, with options to manage access, update details, and share their verified address securely for various use cases.
The DHRUVA platform will also feature multilingual support, mobile-first access, and integration with identity systems like Aadhaar, thereby improving usability and accessibility for all demographics.
The DHRUVA policy builds upon the earlier launch of the Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN)—the National Addressing Grid introduced by the Department of Posts.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/159780/OPS/GRDF8R3AD.1+GO2F8SO2V.1.html
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Department of Posts recently released a draft amendment to the Post Office Act, 2023, aimed at introducing an interoperable, standardised, and user-centric addressing system called the Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address, or DHRUVA.
About Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address (DHRUVA):
Developed by the Department of Posts, DHRUVA sets the foundation for a nationwide Digital Address Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI).
It envisions a standardized, interoperable, and geocoded digital addressing system that supports secure, consent-based, and seamless sharing of address information.
At its core is the concept of Address-as-a-Service (AaaS) — the array of services associated with address data management to support secure and efficient interactions between users, government entities, and private sector organizations.
The AaaS Framework Ensures:
Interoperability across different address systems used by various sectors.
Standardization of address formats and geolocation tagging.
Consent-based sharing to empower user control and privacy.
Public-private integration for seamless adoption and innovation.
By recognizing digital addresses as core infrastructure, akin to Aadhaar and Unified Payments Interface (UPI), DHRUVA sets out to streamline everything from e-governance and online commerce to urban planning and emergency services.
The policy also places emphasis on user-centric design, ensuring that citizens have meaningful control over how their address data is used and shared.
Citizens will retain full control over their digital address identity, with options to manage access, update details, and share their verified address securely for various use cases.
The DHRUVA platform will also feature multilingual support, mobile-first access, and integration with identity systems like Aadhaar, thereby improving usability and accessibility for all demographics.
The DHRUVA policy builds upon the earlier launch of the Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN)—the National Addressing Grid introduced by the Department of Posts.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/159780/OPS/GRDF8R3AD.1+GO2F8SO2V.1.html
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Assam Accord, consider the following statements:
- It was signed on 15th August, 1971.
- It brought an end to the 6-year-long agitation aimed at dispelling foreigners from the state of Assam.
- Clause 3 of the accord promises safeguards to protect the cultural and linguistic identity of Assamese people.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Supreme Court recently asked the Centre if a new order allowing persecuted minorities entry to India violates the Assam Accord’s 1971 deadline.
About Assam Accord:
The Assam Accord was signed on 15th August, 1985, amongst the Union of India, the Govt. of Assam, the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU), and the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad.
The signing of the Accord brought an end to the 6-year-long agitation, the Assam Movement (1979-1985), aimed at dispelling foreigners from the state of Assam.
The aim of the accord was to detect and deport all immigrants in the state who had come to the territory post-24 March 1971.
Main Provisions of Assam Accord:
It determined 1st January 1966 as the cut-off date for the purpose of detection and deletion of foreigners.
It allowed for citizenship for all persons coming to Assam from “Specified Territory” before the cut-off date.
It further specifies that all persons who came to Assam prior to 1st January 1966 (inclusive) and up to 24th March 1971 (midnight) shall be detected in accordance with the provisions of the Foreigners Act, 1946, and the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1939.
The names of foreigners so detected will be deleted from the Electoral Rolls in force.
Such persons will be required to register themselves before the Registration Officers of the respective districts in accordance with the provisions of the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, and the Registration of Foreigners Rules, 1939.
The Assam Accord does not call for their deportation, but they were to get voting rights only after expiry of 10 years from the date of their detection or declaration as foreigner.
Foreigners who came to Assam on or after 25th March 1971 shall continue to be detected, deleted, and expelled in accordance with law.
Clause 6:
It promises to provide constitutional, legislative, and administrative safeguards to protect, preserve, and promote the cultural, social, and linguistic identity, and heritage of the Assamese people.
These safeguards aim to address concerns regarding the state’s demographic and cultural integrity amidst the influx of migrants.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Supreme Court recently asked the Centre if a new order allowing persecuted minorities entry to India violates the Assam Accord’s 1971 deadline.
About Assam Accord:
The Assam Accord was signed on 15th August, 1985, amongst the Union of India, the Govt. of Assam, the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU), and the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad.
The signing of the Accord brought an end to the 6-year-long agitation, the Assam Movement (1979-1985), aimed at dispelling foreigners from the state of Assam.
The aim of the accord was to detect and deport all immigrants in the state who had come to the territory post-24 March 1971.
Main Provisions of Assam Accord:
It determined 1st January 1966 as the cut-off date for the purpose of detection and deletion of foreigners.
It allowed for citizenship for all persons coming to Assam from “Specified Territory” before the cut-off date.
It further specifies that all persons who came to Assam prior to 1st January 1966 (inclusive) and up to 24th March 1971 (midnight) shall be detected in accordance with the provisions of the Foreigners Act, 1946, and the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1939.
The names of foreigners so detected will be deleted from the Electoral Rolls in force.
Such persons will be required to register themselves before the Registration Officers of the respective districts in accordance with the provisions of the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, and the Registration of Foreigners Rules, 1939.
The Assam Accord does not call for their deportation, but they were to get voting rights only after expiry of 10 years from the date of their detection or declaration as foreigner.
Foreigners who came to Assam on or after 25th March 1971 shall continue to be detected, deleted, and expelled in accordance with law.
Clause 6:
It promises to provide constitutional, legislative, and administrative safeguards to protect, preserve, and promote the cultural, social, and linguistic identity, and heritage of the Assamese people.
These safeguards aim to address concerns regarding the state’s demographic and cultural integrity amidst the influx of migrants.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsExercise GARUDA SHAKTI, recently in news, is conducted between India and:
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
Recently, the 10th edition of the Exercise GARUDA SHAKTI has commenced at the Special Forces Training School, Bakloh, Himachal Pradesh.
- It is the joint Special Forces exercise conducted between India– Indonesia.
- The Indian contingent is represented by troops from THE PARACHUTE REGIMENT (Special Forces).
- Aim: The exercise aims to strengthen mutual understanding, cooperation and interoperability between the Special Forces of the two nations.
- Focus: Its scope includes troop-level tactics, techniques and procedures in a counter-terrorism environment, covering unarmed combat techniques, combat shooting, sniping, heliborne operations and planning for drone, counter-UAS and loiter-munition strikes in semi-mountainous terrain.
- Objectives:
- It features the exchange of expertise and information on weapons, equipment and operational practices.
- Validate joint training through a simulated real-world operational scenario.
- Test the endurance, coordination and combat readiness of both contingents.
- Significance: It helps in advancing defence cooperation and further strengthening bilateral relations between the two friendly nations.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2198755®=3&lang=1
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
Recently, the 10th edition of the Exercise GARUDA SHAKTI has commenced at the Special Forces Training School, Bakloh, Himachal Pradesh.
- It is the joint Special Forces exercise conducted between India– Indonesia.
- The Indian contingent is represented by troops from THE PARACHUTE REGIMENT (Special Forces).
- Aim: The exercise aims to strengthen mutual understanding, cooperation and interoperability between the Special Forces of the two nations.
- Focus: Its scope includes troop-level tactics, techniques and procedures in a counter-terrorism environment, covering unarmed combat techniques, combat shooting, sniping, heliborne operations and planning for drone, counter-UAS and loiter-munition strikes in semi-mountainous terrain.
- Objectives:
- It features the exchange of expertise and information on weapons, equipment and operational practices.
- Validate joint training through a simulated real-world operational scenario.
- Test the endurance, coordination and combat readiness of both contingents.
- Significance: It helps in advancing defence cooperation and further strengthening bilateral relations between the two friendly nations.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2198755®=3&lang=1
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ICGS Vigraha:
- It is the Offshore Patrol Vessels of Indian Coast Guard.
- It is equipped with Integrated Bridge System and Automated Power Management System.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, Indian Coast Guard Ship (ICGS) Vigraha undertakes operational visit to Indonesia as part of its overseas deployment to ASEAN countries.
- It is the Offshore Patrol Vessels of Indian Coast Guard which is commissioned in 2021.
- It is indigenously built by L&T Ship Building Limited.
- It is based in Visakhapatnam & operates on eastern seaboard.
- Features of ICGS Vigraha
- Displacement Capacity: The ship displaces 2200 tons (GRT).
- Propulsion: It is propelled by two 9100 KW diesel engines.
- Speed: 26 knots with endurance of 5000 nm.
- It is designed to carry one twin-engine Helicopter & four high speed boats.
- Equipment: It is equipped with Integrated Bridge System (IBS), Integrated Platform Management System (IPMS), Automated Power Management System (APMS) and High-Power External Firefighting (EFF) system.
- It is fitted with advanced technology Radars, Navigation and Communication Equipment, Sensor and Machinery capable of operating in tropical sea conditions.
- It is exclusively deployed for Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) surveillance, maritime law enforcement, and search and rescue operations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2198144®=3&lang=1
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, Indian Coast Guard Ship (ICGS) Vigraha undertakes operational visit to Indonesia as part of its overseas deployment to ASEAN countries.
- It is the Offshore Patrol Vessels of Indian Coast Guard which is commissioned in 2021.
- It is indigenously built by L&T Ship Building Limited.
- It is based in Visakhapatnam & operates on eastern seaboard.
- Features of ICGS Vigraha
- Displacement Capacity: The ship displaces 2200 tons (GRT).
- Propulsion: It is propelled by two 9100 KW diesel engines.
- Speed: 26 knots with endurance of 5000 nm.
- It is designed to carry one twin-engine Helicopter & four high speed boats.
- Equipment: It is equipped with Integrated Bridge System (IBS), Integrated Platform Management System (IPMS), Automated Power Management System (APMS) and High-Power External Firefighting (EFF) system.
- It is fitted with advanced technology Radars, Navigation and Communication Equipment, Sensor and Machinery capable of operating in tropical sea conditions.
- It is exclusively deployed for Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) surveillance, maritime law enforcement, and search and rescue operations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2198144®=3&lang=1
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Forensic Infrastructure Enhancement Scheme:
- It aims to create a sound forensic laboratory infrastructure and prepare world class trained forensic professionals in India.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the Minister of State in the Ministry of Home Affairs informed the Rajya Sabha about the National Forensic Infrastructure Enhancement Scheme.
- It is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 2024.
- Aim: The aim of the scheme is to help create a sound forensic laboratory infrastructure and prepare world class trained forensic professionals in the country.
- Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Implementation Period: 2024–25 to 2028–29.
- Components of National Forensic Infrastructure Enhancement Scheme
- Establishment of campuses of the National Forensic Sciences University (NFSU) in the country.
- Establishment of Central Forensic Science Laboratories (CFSLs) in the country.
- Enhancement of existing infrastructure of the Delhi Campus of the NFSU.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2198254®=3&lang=1#:~:text
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the Minister of State in the Ministry of Home Affairs informed the Rajya Sabha about the National Forensic Infrastructure Enhancement Scheme.
- It is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 2024.
- Aim: The aim of the scheme is to help create a sound forensic laboratory infrastructure and prepare world class trained forensic professionals in the country.
- Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Implementation Period: 2024–25 to 2028–29.
- Components of National Forensic Infrastructure Enhancement Scheme
- Establishment of campuses of the National Forensic Sciences University (NFSU) in the country.
- Establishment of Central Forensic Science Laboratories (CFSLs) in the country.
- Enhancement of existing infrastructure of the Delhi Campus of the NFSU.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2198254®=3&lang=1#:~:text
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Horn-eyed Ghost Crab, consider the following:
- It is a keystone species and indicator of coastal health.
- It is a scavenger species endemic to the Indian coastline.
- It maintains beach ecosystem balance through feeding and burrowing.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, researchers documented unique predatory behaviour of horn-eyed ghost crab at Rushikonda Beach.
- It belongs to the genus Ocypode.
- It has pale bodies which blend seamlessly with the sand, and combined with their swift movements during dawn and dusk, this has led to their common name, “ghost crabs”.
- It is widely regarded as a keystone species and indicator of coastal health.
- Six species of ghost crabs have been reported along the Indian coastline.
- Habitat: It is usually found in the intertidal zones.
- Distribution: It lives in the Indo-Pacific region (except the Red Sea); from the coast of East Africa to the Philippines and from Japan to the Great Barrier Reef.
- Characteristics of Horn-eyed Ghost Crab:
- It has traditionally been described as a scavenger within the intertidal food web.
- Diet: They hunt clams, snails, worms, isopods, shrimps and a variety of insects. They also prey on other crabs, including smaller hermit crabs.
- Ecological Role of Horn-eyed Ghost Crab:
- It plays a crucial ecological role in sandy intertidal environments.
- They influence the distribution and abundance of smaller organisms through their feeding habits and the deep burrows they build.Â
- It maintains beach ecosystem balance through feeding and burrowing.
- Threats: Pollution, changes in sediment distribution, rising sea temperatures and altered tidal patterns may prompt species to explore new microhabitats in search of food.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/visakhapatnam-researchers-document-unique-predatory-behaviour-of-horn-eyed-ghost-crab/article70353593.ece
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, researchers documented unique predatory behaviour of horn-eyed ghost crab at Rushikonda Beach.
- It belongs to the genus Ocypode.
- It has pale bodies which blend seamlessly with the sand, and combined with their swift movements during dawn and dusk, this has led to their common name, “ghost crabs”.
- It is widely regarded as a keystone species and indicator of coastal health.
- Six species of ghost crabs have been reported along the Indian coastline.
- Habitat: It is usually found in the intertidal zones.
- Distribution: It lives in the Indo-Pacific region (except the Red Sea); from the coast of East Africa to the Philippines and from Japan to the Great Barrier Reef.
- Characteristics of Horn-eyed Ghost Crab:
- It has traditionally been described as a scavenger within the intertidal food web.
- Diet: They hunt clams, snails, worms, isopods, shrimps and a variety of insects. They also prey on other crabs, including smaller hermit crabs.
- Ecological Role of Horn-eyed Ghost Crab:
- It plays a crucial ecological role in sandy intertidal environments.
- They influence the distribution and abundance of smaller organisms through their feeding habits and the deep burrows they build.Â
- It maintains beach ecosystem balance through feeding and burrowing.
- Threats: Pollution, changes in sediment distribution, rising sea temperatures and altered tidal patterns may prompt species to explore new microhabitats in search of food.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/visakhapatnam-researchers-document-unique-predatory-behaviour-of-horn-eyed-ghost-crab/article70353593.ece
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Thailand:
- It shares land border with Myanmar and Laos.
- It is drained by the famous Chao Phraya River and Mekong River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, Thailand has formally expressed its ambition to join BRICS and is seeking India’s backing ahead of New Delhi’s chairmanship of the grouping in 2026.
- Location: Thailand is located in the center of mainland Southeast Asia.
- Bordering Countries: It shares boundaries with Myanmar (North West), Laos (North Easst), Cambodia (East), and Malaysia (South).
- Maritime boundary: Bordered by Andaman Sea (SW) and Gulf of Thailand (S)
- Capital City: Bangkok
- Geographical Features of Thailand
- Highest Peak: Doi Inthanon (Approx. 2,565 m)
- Plateau: Khorat Plateauin the northeast region which is a vast tableland bounded by the Mekong River on the north and east.
- Major Rivers: Chao Phraya River and Mekong River (Forms a natural border with Laos)
- Climate: It is influenced by Southwest and Northeast Monsoons
- The Tropical Wet and Dry (Savanna) Climate (Köppen’s classification) dominates most areas.
- Tropical Monsoon Climate in the south and east; some areas also have a Tropical Rainforest Climate.
- Natural Resources: Rubber, Rice, Tin, Natural Gas, Timber, Tungsten, Tantalum
- It is a leading global exporter of rubber, fruits, vegetables, and rice.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.wionews.com/world/thailand-seeks-brics-membership-with-india-s-support-1764788557716
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, Thailand has formally expressed its ambition to join BRICS and is seeking India’s backing ahead of New Delhi’s chairmanship of the grouping in 2026.
- Location: Thailand is located in the center of mainland Southeast Asia.
- Bordering Countries: It shares boundaries with Myanmar (North West), Laos (North Easst), Cambodia (East), and Malaysia (South).
- Maritime boundary: Bordered by Andaman Sea (SW) and Gulf of Thailand (S)
- Capital City: Bangkok
- Geographical Features of Thailand
- Highest Peak: Doi Inthanon (Approx. 2,565 m)
- Plateau: Khorat Plateauin the northeast region which is a vast tableland bounded by the Mekong River on the north and east.
- Major Rivers: Chao Phraya River and Mekong River (Forms a natural border with Laos)
- Climate: It is influenced by Southwest and Northeast Monsoons
- The Tropical Wet and Dry (Savanna) Climate (Köppen’s classification) dominates most areas.
- Tropical Monsoon Climate in the south and east; some areas also have a Tropical Rainforest Climate.
- Natural Resources: Rubber, Rice, Tin, Natural Gas, Timber, Tungsten, Tantalum
- It is a leading global exporter of rubber, fruits, vegetables, and rice.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.wionews.com/world/thailand-seeks-brics-membership-with-india-s-support-1764788557716
Last updated on November, 2025
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