Practice the Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi to increase your current affairs and concept clarity. Ideal for UPSC Prelims and Mains 2025 preparation. Stay updated, revise smarter, and track your progress.
The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions.
UPSC Daily Quiz 9 December 2025
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The Daily UPSC Quiz by Vajiram & Ravi is a thoughtfully curated initiative designed to support UPSC aspirants in strengthening their current affairs knowledge and core conceptual understanding. Aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, this daily quiz serves as a revision resource, helping candidates assess their preparation, revise key topics, and stay updated with relevant issues. Whether you are preparing for Prelims or sharpening your revision for Mains, consistent practice with these Daily UPSC Quiz can significantly enhance accuracy, speed, and confidence in solving exam-level questions
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 points
Which among the following best describes INS Gharial, recently seen in the news?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
The Indian Navy recently deployed INS Gharial and three other vessels as part of the ongoing Operation Sagar Bandhu for offering humanitarian assistance and relief to the cyclone-affected regions of Sri Lanka.
About INS Gharial:
INS Gharial (L23) is a Magar-class amphibious warfare vessel of the Indian Navy.
It is the second indigenously built Landing Ship Tank (Large).
It was built by Hindustan Shipyard Limited and Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers.
It is one of the largest ships of the Indian Navy.
It was commissioned on 14 Feb 1997 and is part of the Eastern Fleet under the Eastern Naval Command.
It is capable of carrying two helicopters, one in the hangar and one on deck, 10 Vijayanta tanks in her underbelly, and four Landing Craft Assault (LCA) slung aloft.
It is also armed with guns and rocket launchers, which are used to “soften up” a hostile beach before the tanks go in and the LCAs charge in with assault troops.
The Indian Navy recently deployed INS Gharial and three other vessels as part of the ongoing Operation Sagar Bandhu for offering humanitarian assistance and relief to the cyclone-affected regions of Sri Lanka.
About INS Gharial:
INS Gharial (L23) is a Magar-class amphibious warfare vessel of the Indian Navy.
It is the second indigenously built Landing Ship Tank (Large).
It was built by Hindustan Shipyard Limited and Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers.
It is one of the largest ships of the Indian Navy.
It was commissioned on 14 Feb 1997 and is part of the Eastern Fleet under the Eastern Naval Command.
It is capable of carrying two helicopters, one in the hangar and one on deck, 10 Vijayanta tanks in her underbelly, and four Landing Craft Assault (LCA) slung aloft.
It is also armed with guns and rocket launchers, which are used to “soften up” a hostile beach before the tanks go in and the LCAs charge in with assault troops.
Consider the following statements regarding the C-130J Super Hercules, recently seen in the news:
It is a maritime reconnaissance aircraft.
It was developed by the United States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
A new defence Maintenance, Repair, and Overhaul (MRO) facility to support the C-130J Super Hercules aircraft will be established in Bengaluru.
About C-130J Super Hercules:
It is a four-engine turboprop military transport aircraft.
It was developed by Lockheed Martin, a US security and aerospace company.
It is the US Air Force’s principal tactical cargo and personnel transport aircraft.
It is the current variant of the C-130 Hercules and is the airlifter of choice for 26 operators in 22 nations.
The largest operators are the US Air Force, US Marine Corps, Australia, Canada, India, Italy, and the United Kingdom.
The Indian Air Force (IAF) currently operates 12 C-130J Super Hercules.
Features:
The aircraft is capable of operating from rough, dirt strips and is the prime transport for airdropping troops and equipment into hostile areas.
It has reduced crew requirements. A minimal crew of three men is required to operate this aircraft, including two pilots and one loadmaster.
It is powered by four Rolls-Royce AE 2100D3 turboprop engines.
It has digital avionics, including Head-Up Display (HUD) for each pilot.
Range: 6,852 km (no payload)
Speed: 644 km/hr
Endurance: 20+ hours
It is capable of short takeoffs and landings from unprepared runways.
It has a payload capacity of 19 tons.
It can accommodate a wide variety of oversized cargo, including everything from utility helicopters and six-wheeled armored vehicles to standard palletized cargo and military personnel.
Equipped with an Infrared Detection Set, the aircraft can perform precision low-level flying, airdrops, and landing in blackout conditions.
A new defence Maintenance, Repair, and Overhaul (MRO) facility to support the C-130J Super Hercules aircraft will be established in Bengaluru.
About C-130J Super Hercules:
It is a four-engine turboprop military transport aircraft.
It was developed by Lockheed Martin, a US security and aerospace company.
It is the US Air Force’s principal tactical cargo and personnel transport aircraft.
It is the current variant of the C-130 Hercules and is the airlifter of choice for 26 operators in 22 nations.
The largest operators are the US Air Force, US Marine Corps, Australia, Canada, India, Italy, and the United Kingdom.
The Indian Air Force (IAF) currently operates 12 C-130J Super Hercules.
Features:
The aircraft is capable of operating from rough, dirt strips and is the prime transport for airdropping troops and equipment into hostile areas.
It has reduced crew requirements. A minimal crew of three men is required to operate this aircraft, including two pilots and one loadmaster.
It is powered by four Rolls-Royce AE 2100D3 turboprop engines.
It has digital avionics, including Head-Up Display (HUD) for each pilot.
Range: 6,852 km (no payload)
Speed: 644 km/hr
Endurance: 20+ hours
It is capable of short takeoffs and landings from unprepared runways.
It has a payload capacity of 19 tons.
It can accommodate a wide variety of oversized cargo, including everything from utility helicopters and six-wheeled armored vehicles to standard palletized cargo and military personnel.
Equipped with an Infrared Detection Set, the aircraft can perform precision low-level flying, airdrops, and landing in blackout conditions.
With reference to Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, consider the following:
Durgeshnandini
Kapalkundala
Rajsimha
Devi Chaudhurani
Anand Math
How many of the above novels are the works of Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
The family of Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, the writer and composer of ‘Vande Mataram’, recently hailed the Prime Minister’s gesture to mark the 150 years of the country’s national song.
About Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay:
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, also known as Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, was one of the greatest novelists and poets of India.
He is famous as the author of Vande Mataram, the national song of India.
He was born on June 27, 1838, in the village of Kantalpara in the 24 Paraganas District of Bengal.
Born into the family of a government official under the British rule of India, he was one of the first two graduates of the University of Calcutta and later obtained a degree in law.
He began his literary career as a writer of verse. He then turned to fiction.
Durgeshnandini, his first Bengali romance, was published in 1865.
His famous novels include Kapalkundala (1866), Mrinalini (1869), Vishbriksha (1873), Chandrasekhar (1877), Rajani (1877), Rajsimha (1881), and Devi Chaudhurani (1884).
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s most famous novel was Anand Math (1882).
It was set in the background of the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century.
Anand Math contained the song “Vande Mataram”, which was later adopted as the national song.
The patriotic song was written in Sanskrit.
In the year 1896, Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore sang this melodic poem for the first time at the Kolkata session of the Indian National Congress.
It was officially adopted as the national song by the Constituent Assembly of India on 24th January 1950.
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay passed away on April 8, 1894.
As a distinguished novelist, poet, and essayist, his contributions significantly influenced the development of modern Bengali prose and the articulation of an emerging Indian nationalism.
He is often regarded as the “Sahitya Samrat” (Emperor of Literature) in Bengali literature.
The family of Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, the writer and composer of ‘Vande Mataram’, recently hailed the Prime Minister’s gesture to mark the 150 years of the country’s national song.
About Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay:
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, also known as Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, was one of the greatest novelists and poets of India.
He is famous as the author of Vande Mataram, the national song of India.
He was born on June 27, 1838, in the village of Kantalpara in the 24 Paraganas District of Bengal.
Born into the family of a government official under the British rule of India, he was one of the first two graduates of the University of Calcutta and later obtained a degree in law.
He began his literary career as a writer of verse. He then turned to fiction.
Durgeshnandini, his first Bengali romance, was published in 1865.
His famous novels include Kapalkundala (1866), Mrinalini (1869), Vishbriksha (1873), Chandrasekhar (1877), Rajani (1877), Rajsimha (1881), and Devi Chaudhurani (1884).
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s most famous novel was Anand Math (1882).
It was set in the background of the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century.
Anand Math contained the song “Vande Mataram”, which was later adopted as the national song.
The patriotic song was written in Sanskrit.
In the year 1896, Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore sang this melodic poem for the first time at the Kolkata session of the Indian National Congress.
It was officially adopted as the national song by the Constituent Assembly of India on 24th January 1950.
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay passed away on April 8, 1894.
As a distinguished novelist, poet, and essayist, his contributions significantly influenced the development of modern Bengali prose and the articulation of an emerging Indian nationalism.
He is often regarded as the “Sahitya Samrat” (Emperor of Literature) in Bengali literature.
With reference to the Bluetongue disease (BT), consider the following statements:
It is an infectious, highly contagious disease caused by a bacterium.
It can infect domestic ruminants along with wild animals.
It is predominantly spread through the bites of infected mosquitos.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
More suspected cases of bluetongue virus (BTV) have been recently detected in Northern Ireland.
About Bluetongue Virus (BTV):
It is responsible for causing the severe haemorrhagic disease, bluetongue (BT).
It is an infectious, non-contagious, vector-borne disease.
It can infect domestic ruminants, including cattle, sheep, and goats, along with wild animals such as buffalo, deer, antelope, and camels.
Of the domestic species, sheep are the most severely affected.
BTV is present in all continents except Antarctica.
Transmission:
BTV is predominantly spread between ruminants through the bites of infected Culicoides midges, tiny blood-feeding insects that can be found in large numbers on most farms.
Some BTV strains can be transferred from a ruminant mother to her fetus during pregnancy.
Can the BTV Spread to Humans?
No, BTV cannot infect people.
There are no food safety issues, and meat and dairy products are safe to consume.
Clinical signs associated with bluetongue disease are usually only seen in sheep (and sometimes deer), and it can be fatal. Clinical Signs Include:
Fever (40°C to 42°C)
Swelling of the lips, tongue, and head
Nasal discharge
Lameness
Reddening around the coronary band (top of the hoof).
Some animals may show signs of a swollen, bluish-coloured tongue (hence the name ‘bluetongue’).
This will not always be seen and should not be relied upon to diagnose bluetongue disease.
BT can result in high rates of morbidity and even mortality in flocks and herds and can affect production (e.g. milk yields) and trade.
Treatment:
There is no effective treatment for bluetongue.
Vaccines are available for certain types of the disease and are used in Africa, Asia, and parts of Europe.
More suspected cases of bluetongue virus (BTV) have been recently detected in Northern Ireland.
About Bluetongue Virus (BTV):
It is responsible for causing the severe haemorrhagic disease, bluetongue (BT).
It is an infectious, non-contagious, vector-borne disease.
It can infect domestic ruminants, including cattle, sheep, and goats, along with wild animals such as buffalo, deer, antelope, and camels.
Of the domestic species, sheep are the most severely affected.
BTV is present in all continents except Antarctica.
Transmission:
BTV is predominantly spread between ruminants through the bites of infected Culicoides midges, tiny blood-feeding insects that can be found in large numbers on most farms.
Some BTV strains can be transferred from a ruminant mother to her fetus during pregnancy.
Can the BTV Spread to Humans?
No, BTV cannot infect people.
There are no food safety issues, and meat and dairy products are safe to consume.
Clinical signs associated with bluetongue disease are usually only seen in sheep (and sometimes deer), and it can be fatal. Clinical Signs Include:
Fever (40°C to 42°C)
Swelling of the lips, tongue, and head
Nasal discharge
Lameness
Reddening around the coronary band (top of the hoof).
Some animals may show signs of a swollen, bluish-coloured tongue (hence the name ‘bluetongue’).
This will not always be seen and should not be relied upon to diagnose bluetongue disease.
BT can result in high rates of morbidity and even mortality in flocks and herds and can affect production (e.g. milk yields) and trade.
Treatment:
There is no effective treatment for bluetongue.
Vaccines are available for certain types of the disease and are used in Africa, Asia, and parts of Europe.
With reference to the Monroe Doctrine, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
It is a significant U.S. foreign policy statement articulated in the early 20th century.
It was aimed at preventing European intervention in the Americas.
It also asserted U.S. neutrality in regard to future European conflicts.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
The US National Security Strategy, released recently, described Trump’s vision as one of “flexible realism” and argued that the U.S. should revive the 19th-century Monroe Doctrine, which declared the Western Hemisphere to be Washington’s zone of influence.
About Monroe Doctrine:
The Monroe Doctrine, articulated by U.S. President James Monroe in 1823, is a significant U.S. foreign policy statement aimed at preventing European intervention in the Americas.
Primarily the work of Secretary of State John Quincy Adams, the Monroe Doctrine forbade European interference in the American hemisphere but also asserted U.S. neutrality in regard to future European conflicts.
The origins of the Monroe Doctrine stem from attempts by several European powers to reassert their influence in the Americas in the early 1820s.
In North America, Russia had attempted to expand its influence in the Alaska territory, and in Central and South America, the U.S. government feared a Spanish colonial resurgence.
Britain too was actively seeking a major role in the political and economic future of the Americas, and Adams feared a subservient role for the United States in an Anglo-American alliance.
The United States invoked the Monroe Doctrine to defend its increasingly imperialistic role in the Americas in the mid-19th century.
However, it was not until the Spanish-American War in 1898 that the United States declared war against a European power over its interference in the American hemisphere.
The doctrine has had lasting impacts on U.S. relations with its southern neighbors, reflecting America’s desire to assert its influence while advocating for independence and self-determination in the region.
The isolationist position of the Monroe Doctrine was also a cornerstone of U.S. foreign policy in the 19th century.
It took the two world wars of the 20th century to draw a hesitant America into its new role as a major global power.
The US National Security Strategy, released recently, described Trump’s vision as one of “flexible realism” and argued that the U.S. should revive the 19th-century Monroe Doctrine, which declared the Western Hemisphere to be Washington’s zone of influence.
About Monroe Doctrine:
The Monroe Doctrine, articulated by U.S. President James Monroe in 1823, is a significant U.S. foreign policy statement aimed at preventing European intervention in the Americas.
Primarily the work of Secretary of State John Quincy Adams, the Monroe Doctrine forbade European interference in the American hemisphere but also asserted U.S. neutrality in regard to future European conflicts.
The origins of the Monroe Doctrine stem from attempts by several European powers to reassert their influence in the Americas in the early 1820s.
In North America, Russia had attempted to expand its influence in the Alaska territory, and in Central and South America, the U.S. government feared a Spanish colonial resurgence.
Britain too was actively seeking a major role in the political and economic future of the Americas, and Adams feared a subservient role for the United States in an Anglo-American alliance.
The United States invoked the Monroe Doctrine to defend its increasingly imperialistic role in the Americas in the mid-19th century.
However, it was not until the Spanish-American War in 1898 that the United States declared war against a European power over its interference in the American hemisphere.
The doctrine has had lasting impacts on U.S. relations with its southern neighbors, reflecting America’s desire to assert its influence while advocating for independence and self-determination in the region.
The isolationist position of the Monroe Doctrine was also a cornerstone of U.S. foreign policy in the 19th century.
It took the two world wars of the 20th century to draw a hesitant America into its new role as a major global power.
Consider the following statements regarding UN Environment Assembly:
It is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the environment.
It is an outcome of the UN Rio Earth Summit of 1992.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Recently, the seventh UN Environment Assembly (UNEA-7) is taking place in Nairobi, Kenya.
It is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the environment.
Member Countries: It has the universal membership of all 193 UN Member States and the full involvement of major groups and stakeholders.
It gathers ministers of environment in Nairobi, Kenya every 2 years.
Background: UNEA was created in 2012, as an outcome of the UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20), held in Brazil.
Functions of UN Environment Assembly:
It sets the global environmental agenda, provides overarching policy guidance, and defines policy responses to address emerging environmental challenges.
It undertakes policy review, dialogue and the exchange of experiences, sets the strategic guidance on the future direction of the UN Environment Programme (UNEP).
It fosters partnerships for achieving environmental goals and resource mobilization.
Organisational Structure: It consists of a President and 8 Vice Presidents (formsthe UNEA Bureau)
Seventh UNEA session (2025) Theme: “Advancing sustainable solutions for a resilient planet”.
Recently, the seventh UN Environment Assembly (UNEA-7) is taking place in Nairobi, Kenya.
It is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the environment.
Member Countries: It has the universal membership of all 193 UN Member States and the full involvement of major groups and stakeholders.
It gathers ministers of environment in Nairobi, Kenya every 2 years.
Background: UNEA was created in 2012, as an outcome of the UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20), held in Brazil.
Functions of UN Environment Assembly:
It sets the global environmental agenda, provides overarching policy guidance, and defines policy responses to address emerging environmental challenges.
It undertakes policy review, dialogue and the exchange of experiences, sets the strategic guidance on the future direction of the UN Environment Programme (UNEP).
It fosters partnerships for achieving environmental goals and resource mobilization.
Organisational Structure: It consists of a President and 8 Vice Presidents (formsthe UNEA Bureau)
Seventh UNEA session (2025) Theme: “Advancing sustainable solutions for a resilient planet”.
Consider the following statements regarding India International Science Festival:
It aims to bring together people and the scientific community both nationally and internationally.
It was launched in 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
The 11th edition of India International Science Festival is being held in Panchkula, Haryana.
It was launched in 2015.
IISF aims to bring together people and the scientific community both nationally and internationally to collaborate, interact, and experience the joy of doing science for the wellbeing of India and humanity, guided by the spirit of swadeshi.
Mission of IISF: Bridging traditional knowledge systems with modern scientific research thereby strengthening the link between India’s indigenous knowledge heritage and contemporary scientific inquiry.
Key Facts about India International Science Festival 2025
It is organised by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and coordinated by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) Pune.
The theme of India International Science Festival (IISF) 2025 – “Vigyan Se Samruddhi: for Aatmanirbhar Bharat”
The event will feature more than 150 technical and thematic sessions across science, technology and innovation.
IISF 2025 will focus on five broad themes:
Science, Technology and Ecology of North-West India and the Himalayan Region;
Science for Society and Education;
Atmanirbhar Bharat through Science and Technology;
Biotechnology and Bio-economy; and
Integration of Traditional Knowledge with Modern Science.
The 11th edition of India International Science Festival is being held in Panchkula, Haryana.
It was launched in 2015.
IISF aims to bring together people and the scientific community both nationally and internationally to collaborate, interact, and experience the joy of doing science for the wellbeing of India and humanity, guided by the spirit of swadeshi.
Mission of IISF: Bridging traditional knowledge systems with modern scientific research thereby strengthening the link between India’s indigenous knowledge heritage and contemporary scientific inquiry.
Key Facts about India International Science Festival 2025
It is organised by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and coordinated by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) Pune.
The theme of India International Science Festival (IISF) 2025 – “Vigyan Se Samruddhi: for Aatmanirbhar Bharat”
The event will feature more than 150 technical and thematic sessions across science, technology and innovation.
IISF 2025 will focus on five broad themes:
Science, Technology and Ecology of North-West India and the Himalayan Region;
Science for Society and Education;
Atmanirbhar Bharat through Science and Technology;
Biotechnology and Bio-economy; and
Integration of Traditional Knowledge with Modern Science.
With reference to National Mission on Edible Oils, consider the following:
It aims to strengthen the country’s oilseed ecosystem and achieve self suffiency in edible oil production.
It focuses only on extraction of oils from primary sources like Rapeseed-Mustard and Groundnut.
It seeks to expand oilseed cultivation by targeting rice and potato fallow lands.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
The National Mission on Edible Oils (NMEO) embodies India’s commitment to realizing the vision of Atmanirbhar Bharat by transforming the edible oil sector from an import-dependent to a self-reliant one.
It aims to strengthen the country’s oilseed ecosystem and achieve Atmanirbharta in edible oil production.
Targets of the mission
It targets to increase the area coveragefrom 29 million ha (2022-23) to 33 million ha, primary oilseed production from 39 million tonnes (2022-23) to 69.7 million tonnes, and yield from 1,353 kg/ha (2022-23) to 2,112 kg/ha by 2030-31.
This mission targets domestic edible oil production at 25.45 million tonnes by 2030-31.
The Mission also seeks to expand oilseed cultivation by an additional 40 lakh hectares by targeting rice and potato fallow lands.
It has two-pronged approach:
NMEO – Oil Palm (2021):
It is focused on expanding oil palm cultivation and increasing domestic crude palm oil output.
It was approved in 2021, as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, with the aim to enhance the edible oilseeds production and oils availability in the country by area expansion and increasing Crude Palm Oil (CPO) production.
It focuses on increasing production of seedlingsby establishment of seed garden, and nurseries of oil palm in order to assure domestic availability of seedlings as per target fixed under NMEO-OP.
Targets: To bring 5 lakh hectares under oil palm cultivation by 2025–26 and increase crude palm oil production to 28 lakh tonnes by 2029–30.
Implementation: The Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare (DA&FW) serves as the nodal central authority.
NMEO – Oilseeds (2024):
It is aimed at improving productivity, seed quality, processing, and market linkages for traditional oilseed crops.
Target: To increase oilseed production from 39 to 69.7 million tonnes by 2030–31 through cluster-based interventions and improved seed systems.
It was approved in 2024, for a seven-year period, from 2024-25 to 2030-31.
Focus: It focuses on increasing production of key primary oilseed cropssuch as Rapeseed-Mustard, Groundnut, Soybean, Sunflower, Sesamum, Safflower, Niger, Linseed and Castor.
It also focuses on increasing collection and extraction efficiency from secondary sources like cottonseed, coconut, rice bran as well as Tree-Borne Oilseeds (TBOs).
Implementation: It will be implemented in all States/UTs with the funding pattern of 60:40 in case of general States, Delhi & Puducherry and 90:10 in case of North-Eastern States and hill States, and 100% funding for UTs and Central Agencies.
The National Mission on Edible Oils (NMEO) embodies India’s commitment to realizing the vision of Atmanirbhar Bharat by transforming the edible oil sector from an import-dependent to a self-reliant one.
It aims to strengthen the country’s oilseed ecosystem and achieve Atmanirbharta in edible oil production.
Targets of the mission
It targets to increase the area coveragefrom 29 million ha (2022-23) to 33 million ha, primary oilseed production from 39 million tonnes (2022-23) to 69.7 million tonnes, and yield from 1,353 kg/ha (2022-23) to 2,112 kg/ha by 2030-31.
This mission targets domestic edible oil production at 25.45 million tonnes by 2030-31.
The Mission also seeks to expand oilseed cultivation by an additional 40 lakh hectares by targeting rice and potato fallow lands.
It has two-pronged approach:
NMEO – Oil Palm (2021):
It is focused on expanding oil palm cultivation and increasing domestic crude palm oil output.
It was approved in 2021, as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, with the aim to enhance the edible oilseeds production and oils availability in the country by area expansion and increasing Crude Palm Oil (CPO) production.
It focuses on increasing production of seedlingsby establishment of seed garden, and nurseries of oil palm in order to assure domestic availability of seedlings as per target fixed under NMEO-OP.
Targets: To bring 5 lakh hectares under oil palm cultivation by 2025–26 and increase crude palm oil production to 28 lakh tonnes by 2029–30.
Implementation: The Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare (DA&FW) serves as the nodal central authority.
NMEO – Oilseeds (2024):
It is aimed at improving productivity, seed quality, processing, and market linkages for traditional oilseed crops.
Target: To increase oilseed production from 39 to 69.7 million tonnes by 2030–31 through cluster-based interventions and improved seed systems.
It was approved in 2024, for a seven-year period, from 2024-25 to 2030-31.
Focus: It focuses on increasing production of key primary oilseed cropssuch as Rapeseed-Mustard, Groundnut, Soybean, Sunflower, Sesamum, Safflower, Niger, Linseed and Castor.
It also focuses on increasing collection and extraction efficiency from secondary sources like cottonseed, coconut, rice bran as well as Tree-Borne Oilseeds (TBOs).
Implementation: It will be implemented in all States/UTs with the funding pattern of 60:40 in case of general States, Delhi & Puducherry and 90:10 in case of North-Eastern States and hill States, and 100% funding for UTs and Central Agencies.
Consider the following statements regarding Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) event:
It is a rapid rise in stratospheric temperatures that weakens the polar vortex
It starts with large-scale Rossby waves getting pushed higher into the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Recently, a meteorologist warned of another Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) event that could plunge temperatures below average across parts of the U.S. later this month.
It refers to a rapid rise in stratospheric temperatures that weakens or distorts the polar vortex (a cold-air mass typically stabilized over the Arctic).
Occurrence of the event:
It begins with large-scale atmosphere waves (called Rossby waves) getting pushed higher into the atmosphere.
These waves can “break” (like waves in the ocean) on top of the polar vortex and weaken it.
If waves are strong enough, the winds of the polar vortex can weaken so much that they can reverse from being westerly to easterly.
This leads to cold air descending and warming rapidly.
It can lead to a displacement or splitting of the polar vortex, so instead of cold air being locked above the polar region, it can push further south into the mid-latitudes.
Recently, a meteorologist warned of another Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) event that could plunge temperatures below average across parts of the U.S. later this month.
It refers to a rapid rise in stratospheric temperatures that weakens or distorts the polar vortex (a cold-air mass typically stabilized over the Arctic).
Occurrence of the event:
It begins with large-scale atmosphere waves (called Rossby waves) getting pushed higher into the atmosphere.
These waves can “break” (like waves in the ocean) on top of the polar vortex and weaken it.
If waves are strong enough, the winds of the polar vortex can weaken so much that they can reverse from being westerly to easterly.
This leads to cold air descending and warming rapidly.
It can lead to a displacement or splitting of the polar vortex, so instead of cold air being locked above the polar region, it can push further south into the mid-latitudes.
Ans. The Daily UPSC Quiz is a set of practice questions based on current affairs, static subjects, and PYQs that help aspirants enhance retention and test conceptual clarity regularly.
Q2. How is the Daily Quiz useful for UPSC preparation?+
Ans. Daily quizzes support learning, help in revision, improve time management, and boost accuracy for both UPSC Prelims and Mains through consistent practice.
Q3. Are the quiz questions based on the UPSC syllabus?+
Ans. Yes, all questions are aligned with the UPSC Syllabus 2025, covering key areas like Polity, Economy, Environment, History, Geography, and Current Affairs.
Q4. Are solutions and explanations provided with the quiz?+
Ans. Yes, each quiz includes detailed explanations and source references to enhance conceptual understanding and enable self-assessment.
Q5. Is the Daily UPSC Quiz suitable for both Prelims and Mains?+
Ans. Primarily focused on Prelims (MCQ format), but it also indirectly helps in Mains by strengthening subject knowledge and factual clarity.
At Vajiram & Ravi, our team includes subject experts who have appeared for the UPSC Mains and the Interview stage. With their deep understanding of the exam, they create content that is clear, to the point, reliable, and helpful for aspirants.Their aim is to make even difficult topics easy to understand and directly useful for your UPSC preparation—whether it’s for Current Affairs, General Studies, or Optional subjects. Every note, article, or test is designed to save your time and boost your performance.
