Topic Wise UPSC Prelims Questions

Topic-wise UPSC Prelims questions are very important for CSE Prelims preparation. The UPSC 2024 Prelims Exam is scheduled for May 26, 2024. At this point in time, the best way to revise and practise for the exam is to use topic-wise UPSC Prelims questions.

In this article, aspirants will find topic-wise UPSC Prelims questions carefully compiled from the last 10 years' question papers, from 2023 to 2013.

Topic Wise UPSC Prelims Questions PDF

By going through the topic-wise UPSC Prelims questions PDF, aspirants can assess their knowledge and identify areas where they need to improve. It also helps them practise time management and develop a strategic approach towards solving questions effectively.

UPSC Prelims Questions Topic-Wise Analysis

The UPSC Prelims GS Paper 1 consists of 100 multiple choice questions that cover a variety of topics. The specific topics covered in the exam vary each year, but the overall distribution of questions across subjects is relatively consistent. You can find a breakdown of the subject-wise weightage and questions in the table below. This will help you to prepare for the upcoming UPSC Prelims 2024 Exam.

UPSC Prelims Topic Wise Questions Analysis - Last 10 Years

Topic Wise History Prelims Questions (PYQs)

The UPSC Prelims History subject covers the following topics: Ancient History, Medieval History, Modern History and Art & Culture. The questions in the UPSC Prelims History exam are designed to test the candidate's knowledge of the major events, personalities, and trends in Indian history. Candidates are also expected to be able to analyze and interpret historical data, and to identify the interconnections between different historical periods and events.

Ancient History Questions 2023

Q.1. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?

(a) Andhra

(b) Gandhara

(c) Kalinga

(d) Magadha

Q.2. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:

1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Q.3. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as

(a) capital cities

(b) ports

(c) centers of iron-and-steel making

(d) shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

Q.4. Which one of the following explains the practice of Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?

(a) Kings employing women bodyguards.

(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters

(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals

(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

Q.5. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Q.6. "Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects."

The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(c) Shaivism

(d) Vaishnavism

Medieval History Questions 2023

Q1. Consider the following dynasties:

1. Hoysala
2. Gahadavala
3. Kakatiya
4. Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) None

Correct answer: d

Q2. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and canalcum- aqueduct several a kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

a) Devaraya I

(b) Mallikarjuna

(c) Vira Vijaya

(d) Virupaksha

Correct answer: a

Modern History Prelims Questions 2023

Q1. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?

(a) Ahmad Shah

(b) Mahmud Begarha

(c) Bahadur Shah

(d) Muhammad Shah

Correct answer: c

Q2. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

(a) archaeological excavations

(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India

(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States

(d) construction of railways in Colonial India

Correct answer: a

Q3. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

(a) The Regulating Act

(b) The Pitt's India Act

(c) The Charter Act of 1793

(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Correct answer: d

Q4. Consider the following statements :

• Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
• Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Correct answer: a

Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims

The Polity subject in the UPSC Prelims exam covers the following topics: Indian Constitution, Organs of government, Fundamental rights and duties, Directive principles of state policy, Federalism, Centre-state relations, and local government, Political system and parties, Electoral system, Civil services, Panchayati Raj and Nagar Palika, Public policy, Rights issues. The questions in the Polity exam are designed to test the candidate's knowledge of the Indian Constitution, the political system, and the various institutions of government. Candidates are also expected to be able to understand and analyse current political issues.

2023:

Q1. In essence, what does Due Process of Law' mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(c) Fair application of law

(d) Equality before law

Correct answer: c

Q2. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(c) 44th Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Correct answer: a

Q3. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:

• The National Commission for Backward Classes
• The National Human Rights Commission
• The National Law Commission
• The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Correct answer: a

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Correct answer: d

Q5. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Correct answer: b

UPSC Prelims Geography PYQs

The Geography subject in the UPSC Prelims exam covers the following topics: Physical Geography, Human Geography, Indian Geography. The questions in the Geography exam are designed to test the candidate's knowledge of the basic concepts of geography, as well as their understanding of the specific features of Indian geography. Candidates are also expected to be able to understand and analyse current geographical issues.

2023:

Q1. Consider the following statements:

• Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most its electricity production.
• Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent at of least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct"

Correct Answer: Option c

Q2. Consider the following statements:

• Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
• Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
• Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Correct Answer: Option b

Q3. Consider the following trees:

• Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
• Mahua (Madhuca indica)
• Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Correct Answer: Option b

Q4. Consider the following statements:

• India has more arable area than China.
• The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
• The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Correct Answer: Option b

Q5. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

(a) Aluminium

(b) Copper

(c) Iron

(d) Titanium

Correct Answer: Option d

For the rest of the UPSC Prelims Geography PYQ, download the PDF.

UPSC Prelims Environment & Ecology Questions

Environment and ecology are two of the most important subjects covered in the UPSC Prelims exam. The environment is the physical and biological world that surrounds us, while ecology is the study of the interactions between living organisms and their environment.

The UPSC Prelims exam covers a wide range of topics related to environment and ecology, including Biodiversity and conservation, Climate change and pollution, Natural resources management, Environmental policies and laws, and Sustainable development.

2023:

Q1. Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve'

• the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
• hunting is not allowed in such area
• people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
• people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four 

Correct answer: c

Q2. Consider the following statements:

• Statement-1: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
• Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-1 is correct Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Correct answer: c

Q3. Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

(b) The United Nations Environment Programme

(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development

(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Correct answer: a

Q4. Consider the following fauna:

• Lion-tailed Macaque
• Malabar Civet
• Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Correct answer: b

Q5. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

(a) Butterflies

(b) Dragonflies

(c) Honeybees

(d) Wasps

Correct answer: c

For rest of the UPSC Prelims Environment and Ecology PYQs, download the PDF.

UPSC Prelims Science & Technology Questions

The Science and Technology subject in the UPSC Prelims exam covers a wide range of topics, including General Science, Information Technology, Space Science, Biotechnology, Nanotechnology, New and Emerging Technologies. The questions in the Science and Technology exam are designed to test the candidate's basic knowledge of science and technology concepts, as well as their awareness of current scientific and technological developments.

2023:

Q1. Consider the following:

1. Aerosols
2. Foam agents
3. Fire retardants
4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Correct answer: c

Q2. ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes

(b) Converting crop residues into packing material

(c) Producing biodegradable plastics

(d) Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass

Correct answer: a

Q3. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go

(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat

(c) Using air-bome devices to collect blood samples from moving animals

(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

Correct answer: a

Q4. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?

(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna

(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues

(c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants

(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population"

Correct answer: a

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraftes.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer: a

Q6. Consider the following actions:

1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive
3. Detection of the tit of smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode

In how many of the above action is the function of accelerometer required?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Correct answer: c

Q7. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

(a) Australia

(b) Canada

(c) Israel

(d) Japan

Correct answer: d

UPSC Prelims Economics PYQs

UPSC Prelims Economics subject covers important topics like microeconomics, macroeconomics, monetary and fiscal policies and other important documents released by the Government like Economic Survey and Economic Budget.

2023:

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
2. Statement-II: InviTs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Recon struction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

Correct Answer: D

Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
2. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Correct Answer: a

Q3. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?

(a) Conducting 'Open Market Operations'

(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems

(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments

(d) Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions"

Correct Answer: a

Q4. Consider the following markets:

1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Correct Answer: b

Q5. Consider the investments in the following assets:

1. Brand recognition
2. Inventory
3. Intellectual property
4. Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Correct Answer: c

Q6. Consider the following:

1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five

Correct Answer: b

Q7. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:

1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy

On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Correct Answer: c

Q8. Consider, the following statements :

1. Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
2. Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Correct answer: d

Q9. Consider the following statements :

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that: 

1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union 
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Correct Answer: a

Q10. Consider the following statements with reference to India:

1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹ 15 crore and ₹ 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: d

Q11. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:

1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer: c

Q12. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to

(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms

(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward

(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible

(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.

Correct Answer: d